Daily MCQ Paper — 1 April 2026

Daily MCQ Paper — 1 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

1. Q1. The Basic Structure doctrine evolved chiefly through
   1. Shankari Prasad v UoI
   2. Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala (1973) — 13-judge bench by 7:6 majority
   3. Golak Nath v Punjab
   4. Maneka Gandhi v UoI
2. Q2. In Maneka Gandhi v UoI (1978), the Supreme Court held that the procedure under Article 21 must be
   1. Procedure prescribed by law in any form
   2. Just, fair and reasonable — not arbitrary or oppressive
   3. Only criminal procedure
   4. Procedure determined by the executive
3. Q3. Habeas Corpus is a writ that literally means
   1. You may have the body — issued to produce a detained person before the court to determine legality of detention
   2. Of certain we make sure
   3. We command
   4. To prohibit
4. Q4. The 9th Schedule, inserted by the 1st Amendment 1951 to protect laws from judicial review, is itself open to review for basic structure violation post
   1. Kesavananda Bharati
   2. I R Coelho v State of Tamil Nadu (2007) — 9-judge bench
   3. Minerva Mills
   4. SR Bommai
5. Q5. The "Golden Triangle" of fundamental rights consists of
   1. Articles 14, 19, and 21
   2. Articles 21, 32, and 226
   3. Articles 13, 14, and 15
   4. Articles 19, 20, and 22
6. Q6. The doctrine that a law inconsistent with FRs is void only to the extent of inconsistency is
   1. Doctrine of Severability
   2. Doctrine of Eclipse
   3. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
   4. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
7. Q7. In KS Puttaswamy v UoI (2017), a 9-judge bench unanimously held that the right to privacy is
   1. A statutory right
   2. A fundamental right intrinsic to Article 21 (and 14, 19) — overruling MP Sharma and Kharak Singh
   3. Available only to citizens
   4. Restricted to bodily integrity
8. Q8. Article 32 — the right to constitutional remedies — was described by Dr Ambedkar as the
   1. Soul of the Constitution
   2. Heart and Soul of the Constitution
   3. Spirit of the Constitution
   4. Foundation of the Constitution
9. Q9. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 was popularly called the
   1. Mini-Constitution
   2. Anti-Defection Act
   3. Bank Nationalisation
   4. Right-to-Education
10. Q10. Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders to do
    1. Complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it
    2. Only criminal punishment
    3. Money decrees alone
    4. Only constitutional review
11. Q11. Section 305 IPC (abetment of suicide of child or insane person) corresponds in BNS 2023 to
    1. BNS 108
    2. BNS 144 (abetment of suicide of child or person of unsound mind)
    3. BNS 100
    4. BNS 103
12. Q12. In Ramesh Kumar v State of Chhattisgarh (2001), the Supreme Court clarified the scope of Section 113A IEA holding the presumption
    1. Is automatic
    2. Is discretionary — court "may" presume only if cruelty is established with sufficient proximity to suicide
    3. Cannot apply ever
    4. Applies to any death
13. Q13. In Pawan Kumar v State of Haryana (1998), the Supreme Court invoked Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act for
    1. Custodial torture
    2. Presumption of abetment of suicide of a married woman within 7 years of marriage where cruelty is shown
    3. Anti-corruption
    4. Election fraud
14. Q14. Section 117 IPC (abettor) — abetment of an offence by the public — is renumbered in BNS 2023 as
    1. Section 49
    2. Section 53
    3. Section 60
    4. Section 63
15. Q15. The offence of "kidnapping or abducting in order to compel a woman to marriage" (Section 366 IPC) is renumbered in BNS 2023 as
    1. Section 87
    2. Section 100
    3. Section 137
    4. Section 144
16. Q16. Section 498A IPC (cruelty by husband or relatives), now Section 86 BNS 2023, was inserted in the IPC by the
    1. 42nd Constitutional Amendment 1976
    2. Criminal Law (Second Amendment) Act 1983
    3. POCSO Act 2012
    4. BNS 2023
17. Q17. Sections 117-119 BNS deal with
    1. Sedition
    2. Causing hurt — voluntarily causing hurt by dangerous means and to deter public servant
    3. Theft
    4. Cheating
18. Q18. Lallu Manjhi v State of Jharkhand (2003) is a leading case on
    1. Murder
    2. Causing hurt to deter public servant — Section 332 IPC (Section 119 BNS) — needs intent and discharge of duty
    3. Sedition
    4. Defamation
19. Q19. The new offence of "Mob lynching" was introduced by the BNS 2023 in
    1. Section 100
    2. Section 103(2) — death or life imprisonment, fine, where 5 or more persons act on grounds of race, caste, etc.
    3. Section 144
    4. Section 200
20. Q20. Section 124A IPC (sedition) in BNS 2023 has been replaced by
    1. Section 113 (terrorism)
    2. Section 152 (acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India) with broader phrasing
    3. Section 200
    4. Section 300
21. Q21. The new BNSS 2023 timeline for filing a chargesheet for offences punishable with imprisonment up to 10 years is
    1. 30 days
    2. 60 days (90 days for offences punishable with death/life/10+ years)
    3. 120 days
    4. 180 days
22. Q22. The BNSS 2023 provides for trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender after
    1. 30 days notice
    2. 90 days from issue of proclamation if accused fails to appear — Section 356
    3. No trial possible
    4. Indefinite delay
23. Q23. Zero FIR — registration of an FIR by a police station regardless of jurisdiction — is given a statutory basis in
    1. BNSS 2023, Section 173(1)
    2. CrPC Section 154
    3. Constitution Article 21
    4. Indian Penal Code
24. Q24. Electronic summons and electronic records are recognised under BNSS 2023 in
    1. Section 64-71 (service through electronic communication permitted)
    2. Section 154 CrPC
    3. POCSO Act
    4. RTI Act
25. Q25. In Vinubhai Haribhai Malaviya v State of Gujarat (2019), the Supreme Court held that a Magistrate has the power to direct further investigation under
    1. Section 156(3) CrPC
    2. Section 173(8) CrPC even after taking cognisance, until trial commences
    3. Section 161 CrPC
    4. Section 320 CrPC
26. Q26. Forensic investigation has been made mandatory for offences punishable with
    1. 3+ years
    2. 7 years or more imprisonment under BNSS 2023 Section 176(3)
    3. Death penalty only
    4. All offences
27. Q27. Section 482 CrPC (inherent powers of High Court) corresponds in BNSS 2023 to
    1. Section 528
    2. Section 100
    3. Section 200
    4. Section 300
28. Q28. In Mirza Akbar v King-Emperor (1940), the Privy Council clarified the scope of Section 10 IEA (now Section 8 BSA) regarding
    1. Confessions
    2. Things said or done by conspirators in reference to their common intention — admissible only for the period of conspiracy
    3. Hearsay
    4. Documentary evidence
29. Q29. Sections 6-11 IEA deal with relevancy of facts; Section 6 (now Sec 4 BSA) covers
    1. Confessions
    2. Facts forming part of the same transaction (res gestae)
    3. Expert opinion
    4. Character evidence
30. Q30. The doctrine of res gestae allows admission of statements
    1. Made long after the event
    2. Spontaneously made during or immediately after a transaction — proximate in time and circumstance
    3. Made by absent witnesses
    4. Hearsay always
31. Q31. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) 2023 expressly admits electronic records as
    1. Inadmissible
    2. Primary evidence equivalent to documentary evidence — Section 57 (formerly Sec 65A/B IEA)
    3. Hearsay
    4. Secondary only
32. Q32. Section 113B IEA (now Section 118 BSA) — presumption as to dowry death — applies when
    1. A married woman commits suicide
    2. Death of a woman occurs within 7 years of marriage in connection with demand for dowry — court shall presume the husband / relative caused dowry death
    3. A male is murdered
    4. Any homicide
33. Q33. Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 declares an agreement void if its consideration or object is
    1. Adequate
    2. Forbidden by law, defeats provisions of any law, fraudulent, injurious to person/property, or opposed to public policy
    3. In writing
    4. Beyond seal
34. Q34. Lalman Shukla v Gauri Datt (1913) is the landmark on
    1. Capacity to contract
    2. Communication of offer — acceptance without knowledge of offer is no acceptance, no enforceable contract
    3. Consideration
    4. Frustration
35. Q35. Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose (1903) established that a contract by a minor is
    1. Voidable
    2. Void ab initio — minor lacks capacity under Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act 1872
    3. Valid
    4. Voidable at minor's option
36. Q36. The doctrine of frustration in Indian law is codified in
    1. Section 56 ICA — agreement to do an impossible act, or where performance becomes impossible/unlawful, becomes void
    2. Section 73
    3. Section 25
    4. Section 124
37. Q37. A "wagering agreement" is declared void under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 except in the case of
    1. Forward contracts
    2. Horse racing prizes of Rs 500 or more (specific exception under Section 30 itself)
    3. Insurance
    4. Lottery
38. Q38. The rule in Rylands v Fletcher (1868) on strict liability requires
    1. Negligence
    2. Non-natural use of land + escape of a dangerous thing causing damage — liability without fault, with defenses (act of God, plaintiff's default, etc.)
    3. Mens rea
    4. Statutory authority
39. Q39. In M C Mehta v UoI (1987) — the Oleum Gas Leak case — the Supreme Court evolved
    1. The principle of strict liability
    2. The principle of absolute liability for hazardous industries — no exceptions, no Rylands v Fletcher defenses
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Volenti non fit injuria
40. Q40. The defence of "Volenti non fit injuria" means
    1. He who consents cannot complain of injury
    2. Statutory authority
    3. Inevitable accident
    4. Act of God
41. Q41. Vicarious liability of master for servant's tort applies when the wrongful act is committed
    1. At any time
    2. In the course of employment — within scope of authority, including unauthorised modes of authorised acts
    3. Outside employment
    4. In personal capacity
42. Q42. In Vineeta Sharma v Rakesh Sharma (2020), a Constitution Bench held that the 2005 amendment to Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act
    1. Applies prospectively only
    2. Confers daughters coparcenary rights by birth retrospectively — father need not be alive on 9 Sept 2005
    3. Excludes married daughters
    4. Was unconstitutional
43. Q43. The Hindu Succession Act 1956 lists the heirs of a Hindu male dying intestate in
    1. Schedule I — Class I heirs include widow, mother, son, daughter (and predeceased son's/daughter's children) etc.
    2. Schedule III
    3. Schedule V
    4. No schedule
44. Q44. Domicile under the Indian Succession Act 1925 is governed by
    1. Sections 5-19 — domicile of origin, choice, by operation of law (including women)
    2. POCSO Act
    3. Hindu Succession Act
    4. BNS 2023
45. Q45. The Special Marriage Act 1954 provides for
    1. Religious marriage only
    2. Civil marriage and registration without religious ceremonies — applies to inter-faith and Indian citizens abroad
    3. Polygamy
    4. Customary marriage
46. Q46. Section 6(d) of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 prohibits transfer of
    1. All property
    2. A mere right to sue — non-transferable as it is personal
    3. Immovable property
    4. Joint property
47. Q47. Specific Relief Act 1963 was amended in 2018 to make
    1. Specific performance discretionary
    2. Specific performance the rule (not discretionary) — courts shall grant unless excepted, alongside provisions for substituted performance
    3. Damages mandatory
    4. Injunctions banned
48. Q48. Section 53A TPA — Doctrine of Part Performance — protects a transferee in possession when
    1. Sale deed is registered
    2. A written contract for transfer of immovable property exists, transferee has performed/willing to perform, and is in possession — even if formal transfer deed not executed
    3. Oral sale
    4. Gift deed
49. Q49. The motto "Yato Dharmastato Jayah" inscribed on the Supreme Court emblem means
    1. Where there is dharma, there is victory
    2. Truth alone triumphs
    3. Justice for all
    4. Where there is righteousness, there is victory (drawn from Mahabharata)
50. Q50. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence
    1. The petitioner stated, "the order is illegal".
    2. The petitioner stated, "The order is illegal."
    3. The petitioner stated "the order is illegal".
    4. The petitioner stated; "the order is illegal."