Daily MCQ Paper — 10 April 2026

Daily MCQ Paper — 10 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

1. Q1. The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act 2023 reserves seats for women under newly inserted
   1. Article 330A
   2. Article 332A
   3. Article 334A
   4. All of the above
2. Q2. The Womens Reservation under 106th Amendment shall come into force after
   1. Notification by Centre
   2. Census followed by delimitation
   3. Approval of all states
   4. 15 years
3. Q3. The judgment in Justice K S Puttaswamy v Union of India (2017) recognised right to privacy as a fundamental right under
   1. Article 14
   2. Article 19
   3. Article 21
   4. Article 25
4. Q4. The DPDP Act 2023 implements which constitutional right
   1. Right to property
   2. Right to privacy under Article 21
   3. Right to information under Article 19(1)(a)
   4. Right to equality
5. Q5. Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees freedom of
   1. Speech and expression
   2. Conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
   3. Movement
   4. Profession
6. Q6. The doctrine of basic structure was propounded in
   1. Golak Nath case
   2. Kesavananda Bharati case
   3. Minerva Mills case
   4. Indira Gandhi case
7. Q7. Article 368 deals with
   1. Emergency provisions
   2. Amendment of the Constitution
   3. Special status of J&K
   4. Election of President
8. Q8. In Maneka Gandhi v Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court held that procedure under Article 21 must be
   1. Reasonable, fair and just
   2. Prescribed by law only
   3. Approved by Parliament
   4. Approved by Cabinet
9. Q9. Article 21A guarantees free and compulsory education to children of age
   1. 3 to 14 years
   2. 6 to 14 years
   3. 6 to 18 years
   4. 5 to 16 years
10. Q10. The right to freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a) is subject to reasonable restrictions under
    1. Article 19(2)
    2. Article 19(3)
    3. Article 19(6)
    4. Article 21
11. Q11. BNS Section 199 deals with
    1. Public servant disobeying law with intent to cause injury
    2. Mischief
    3. Theft
    4. Cheating
12. Q12. Under BNS 2023, the offence of rioting is dealt with in Section
    1. 141
    2. 146
    3. 191
    4. 299
13. Q13. BNS Section 192 deals with
    1. Wrongful restraint
    2. Whoever is guilty of rioting
    3. Hurting public servant in dispersing assembly
    4. Affray
14. Q14. The offence of acid attack is dealt with under BNS Section
    1. 76
    2. 77
    3. 124
    4. 125
15. Q15. BNS Section 200 (mirroring IPC 166A) creates the offence of
    1. Public servant disobeying directions on investigation
    2. Bribery
    3. Forgery by public servant
    4. Public servant abetting suicide
16. Q16. In Mohan Singh v State of Punjab (1962), the Supreme Court clarified the principles of
    1. Common intention vs common object
    2. Self-defence
    3. Insanity
    4. Provocation
17. Q17. CBI v Vinod Kumar (2024) related to which offence
    1. Disproportionate assets
    2. Misconduct of public servant under PC Act read with BNS
    3. Murder
    4. Sedition
18. Q18. In Laxmi v Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court issued guidelines regulating
    1. Sale of acid
    2. POSH compliance
    3. Bail
    4. Arrests
19. Q19. Under BNS, an unlawful assembly requires a minimum of
    1. 3 persons
    2. 5 persons
    3. 7 persons
    4. 10 persons
20. Q20. The offence of voluntarily causing hurt under BNS is in Section
    1. 115
    2. 116
    3. 117
    4. 118
21. Q21. Central Bureau of Investigation v Vikas Mishra (2023) and the larger bench reference relate to
    1. Limit of police custody
    2. Anticipatory bail
    3. Bail jurisprudence
    4. Sentencing policy
22. Q22. BNSS Section 187 (replacing CrPC 167) prescribes maximum total custody (police + judicial) before charge sheet for offences punishable with death or 10+ years as
    1. 60 days
    2. 90 days
    3. 120 days
    4. 180 days
23. Q23. Plea bargaining under BNSS is dealt with in Sections
    1. 289-300
    2. 290-294
    3. 230-240
    4. 438-440
24. Q24. CBI v Anupam J Kulkarni (1992) held that police custody under Section 167 CrPC could be obtained
    1. Only within first 15 days
    2. Throughout 90/60 day period
    3. Only with magistrates leave
    4. Only at trial
25. Q25. BNSS Section 360 deals with
    1. Compounding of offences
    2. Anticipatory bail
    3. Plea bargaining
    4. Probation
26. Q26. Anticipatory bail under BNSS is dealt with in Section
    1. 438
    2. 436
    3. 482
    4. 438 of CrPC; BNSS s.482
27. Q27. BNSS retains the scheme of trial of summons and warrant cases under Chapters
    1. XX and XIX (BNSS)
    2. XV and XVI
    3. XXI and XXII
    4. XII and XIII
28. Q28. Section 17 of BSA (parallel to s.6 IEA) deals with
    1. Res gestae – facts forming part of same transaction
    2. Confessions
    3. Dying declarations
    4. Expert evidence
29. Q29. Motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct are made relevant under BSA Section (mirroring IEA s.8)
    1. 17
    2. 18
    3. 22
    4. 19
30. Q30. Mirza Akbar v King Emperor (1940) is the leading case on which evidentiary doctrine
    1. Res gestae
    2. Hearsay
    3. Conspiracy under IEA s.10 / BSA s.20
    4. Dying declaration
31. Q31. BSA Sections 17-22 broadly deal with
    1. Relevancy of facts
    2. Confessions
    3. Burden of proof
    4. Examination of witnesses
32. Q32. Things said or done by a conspirator in reference to a common design are relevant under BSA Section
    1. 17
    2. 18
    3. 19
    4. 20
33. Q33. Reserve Bank of India v Peerless General Finance and Investment Co. (1987) is best known for
    1. Construction of statutes – rule of plain meaning v scheme
    2. Specific performance
    3. Damages
    4. Frustration
34. Q34. Under SRA s.16 (after 2018 amendment), specific performance may be refused if
    1. Plaintiff failed to aver and prove readiness and willingness
    2. Defendant offered damages
    3. Contract was for movable property
    4. Specified time exceeded 1 year
35. Q35. The Specific Relief (Amendment) Act 2018 made specific performance
    1. Discretionary as before
    2. Mandatory subject to specified exceptions
    3. Available only against the State
    4. Subject to public interest test
36. Q36. A contract is voidable at the option of party whose consent was caused by
    1. Mistake of fact
    2. Coercion, undue influence, fraud or misrepresentation
    3. Mistake of law
    4. Public policy
37. Q37. Specific Relief Act sections 9-11 deal with
    1. Recovery of specific movable property and possession of immovable property
    2. Specific performance
    3. Injunctions
    4. Declaratory decrees
38. Q38. Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) is best known for establishing
    1. Neighbour principle in negligence
    2. Strict liability
    3. Nuisance
    4. Defamation
39. Q39. The Bolton v Stone (1951) case dealt with the tort of
    1. Nuisance and reasonable foreseeability
    2. Defamation
    3. Negligence and degree of probability of harm
    4. Trespass
40. Q40. The principle in Rylands v Fletcher (1868) imposes
    1. Strict liability for non-natural use of land
    2. Vicarious liability
    3. Negligence-based liability
    4. Absolute liability without exceptions
41. Q41. Innuendo in defamation refers to
    1. Direct false statement
    2. Hidden secondary meaning conveying defamatory imputation
    3. Vulgar abuse
    4. Statement of opinion
42. Q42. Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 prescribes
    1. Conditions of valid marriage
    2. Solemnisation
    3. Registration
    4. Restitution
43. Q43. Bhaurao Shankar Lokhande v State of Maharashtra (1965) held that for a marriage to be solemnised
    1. Mere agreement is sufficient
    2. Essential ceremonies of customary or specific form must be performed
    3. Registration alone is sufficient
    4. Witnesses suffice
44. Q44. Saroj Rani v Sudarshan Kumar (1984) upheld the constitutional validity of
    1. Section 9 (Restitution of Conjugal Rights) HMA
    2. Section 13 HMA
    3. Section 25 HMA
    4. Section 24 HMA
45. Q45. Under HMA, divorce by mutual consent is provided in
    1. Section 13
    2. Section 13B
    3. Section 14
    4. Section 25
46. Q46. Lis pendens (s.52 of Transfer of Property Act 1882) means
    1. Doctrine of holding over
    2. Doctrine that pendent lite no party can transfer property to defeat the suit
    3. Doctrine of part performance
    4. Doctrine of merger
47. Q47. Section 9 of SRA deals with
    1. Defence based on title in suits for possession
    2. Specific performance
    3. Injunction
    4. Declaration
48. Q48. Section 10 of SRA (post-2018 amendment) makes specific performance
    1. Discretionary in all cases
    2. Mandatorily enforceable subject to s.11(2), 14 and 16
    3. Available only for sale of land
    4. Restricted to specified contracts
49. Q49. The expression mens rea refers to
    1. Guilty mind
    2. Guilty act
    3. Burden of proof
    4. Concurrent jurisdiction
50. Q50. The Chief Justice of India as of late 2024 was
    1. D Y Chandrachud (retired 10 Nov 2024)
    2. U U Lalit
    3. Sanjiv Khanna (CJI from 11 Nov 2024)
    4. N V Ramana