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Daily MCQ Paper — 15 April 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 15 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. Article 348 deals with
    1. Language of the Supreme Court and High Courts
    2. Special directives
    3. Linguistic minorities
    4. Eighth Schedule
  2. Q2. Article 343 of the Constitution declares the official language of the Union as
    1. English
    2. Hindi in Devanagari script
    3. Sanskrit
    4. Hindustani
  3. Q3. The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution originally listed how many languages?
    1. 14
    2. 15
    3. 18
    4. 22
  4. Q4. Article 352 deals with
    1. National Emergency
    2. State Emergency
    3. Financial Emergency
    4. Constitutional Emergency
  5. Q5. SR Bommai v Union of India (1994) is the landmark case on
    1. Article 352 (National Emergency)
    2. Article 356 (President's Rule) — judicial review
    3. Article 360 (Financial Emergency)
    4. Basic Structure
  6. Q6. Article 356 imposes
    1. National Emergency
    2. President's Rule in a state
    3. Financial Emergency
    4. War Emergency
  7. Q7. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act 1978 changed the ground in Article 352 from
    1. Internal disturbance to armed rebellion
    2. External aggression to war
    3. Armed rebellion to insurrection
    4. Sedition to rebellion
  8. Q8. Article 360 provides for
    1. National Emergency
    2. State Emergency
    3. Financial Emergency
    4. Constitutional Amendment
  9. Q9. Under Article 352, after the 44th Amendment, a Proclamation of Emergency requires
    1. Cabinet recommendation in writing
    2. Prime Minister's recommendation
    3. Lok Sabha resolution
    4. Rajya Sabha resolution
  10. Q10. The maximum duration of National Emergency, after parliamentary approval, is
    1. 6 months at a time
    2. 1 year
    3. 2 years
    4. Indefinite
  11. Q11. Rape is defined under which section of BNS 2023?
    1. Section 63
    2. Section 64
    3. Section 70
    4. Section 75
  12. Q12. Punishment for rape under BNS Section 64 is
    1. Minimum 7 years to life
    2. Minimum 10 years to life
    3. Death only
    4. Up to 5 years
  13. Q13. Gang rape is punishable under BNS Section
    1. 64
    2. 65
    3. 70
    4. 71
  14. Q14. Rape on a woman under 16 years of age is punishable under BNS
    1. Section 64(1)
    2. Section 65(1)
    3. Section 65(2)
    4. Section 70(2)
  15. Q15. Rape on a woman under 12 years is punishable under BNS Section
    1. 65(2)
    2. 70(2)
    3. 64
    4. 71
  16. Q16. BNS Section 137 deals with
    1. Murder
    2. Kidnapping
    3. Theft
    4. Sedition
  17. Q17. Abduction is defined under BNS Section
    1. 138
    2. 137
    3. 141
    4. 139
  18. Q18. The punishment for repeat-offender rape under BNS Section 71 is
    1. Death
    2. Life imprisonment for remainder of natural life or death
    3. Minimum 20 years
    4. Minimum 30 years
  19. Q19. The Criminal Law Amendment Act 2013 (post-Nirbhaya) was enacted following the
    1. Mathura case
    2. Nirbhaya/Delhi Dec 2012 case
    3. Aruna Shanbaug case
    4. Bilkis Bano case
  20. Q20. BNS 2023 came into force on
    1. 1 July 2024
    2. 1 January 2024
    3. 15 August 2023
    4. 26 January 2024
  21. Q21. Lalita Kumari v Government of UP (2014) held that
    1. FIR is mandatory for cognizable offences disclosed in information
    2. FIR can be deferred for preliminary enquiry
    3. FIR registration is at police discretion
    4. FIR requires Magistrate sanction
  22. Q22. Anticipatory bail provision is under BNSS Section
    1. 438
    2. 482
    3. 438A
    4. 482A
  23. Q23. The maximum period of custody under BNSS for serious offences is
    1. 60 days
    2. 90 days
    3. 180 days
    4. 15 days
  24. Q24. FIR registration is provided under BNSS Section
    1. 154
    2. 173
    3. 161
    4. 155
  25. Q25. Arnesh Kumar v State of Bihar (2014) laid down guidelines for
    1. Bail
    2. Arrest under Section 41 CrPC for offences punishable up to 7 years
    3. Investigation
    4. Charge-sheet filing
  26. Q26. Arrest without warrant is provided under BNSS Section
    1. 35
    2. 41
    3. 46
    4. 50
  27. Q27. Inherent powers of the High Court under BNSS are preserved by Section
    1. 482
    2. 528
    3. 362
    4. 401
  28. Q28. Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal (2020) clarified that
    1. Sec 65B certificate can be filed at any stage with court permission, and is mandatory
    2. Sec 65B certificate is optional
    3. Anvar P.V. is overruled
    4. Sec 65B does not apply to CCTV
  29. Q29. Anvar P.V. v P.K. Basheer (2014) held that
    1. Sec 65B certificate is mandatory for electronic evidence
    2. Sec 65B is directory only
    3. Oral testimony suffices for electronic records
    4. Hash value mandatory
  30. Q30. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) 2023 has how many sections?
    1. 167 sections
    2. 170 sections
    3. 167 (vs 167 in IEA)
    4. 170 (BSA replaces 167-section IEA)
  31. Q31. Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act / Section 63 BSA deals with
    1. Oral evidence
    2. Electronic record admissibility — certificate requirement
    3. Documentary evidence
    4. Expert opinion
  32. Q32. Dying declaration is admissible under BSA Section
    1. 32(1)
    2. 26(a)
    3. 27
    4. 30
  33. Q33. Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose (1903) held that
    1. A minor's contract is voidable
    2. A minor's contract is void ab initio
    3. A minor's contract is enforceable on majority
    4. A minor's contract requires guardian sanction
  34. Q34. Lalman Shukla v Gauri Datt (1913) is the leading case on
    1. Communication of offer / knowledge of offer
    2. Acceptance by post
    3. Privity of contract
    4. Specific performance
  35. Q35. Specific performance of contracts is governed by
    1. Specific Relief Act 1963
    2. Indian Contract Act 1872
    3. Transfer of Property Act 1882
    4. Sale of Goods Act 1930
  36. Q36. Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act deals with
    1. Compensation for loss/damage by breach
    2. Liquidated damages
    3. Specific performance
    4. Quasi-contracts
  37. Q37. Hadley v Baxendale (1854) laid down the rule on
    1. Remoteness of damages
    2. Specific performance
    3. Frustration
    4. Penalty clauses
  38. Q38. M.C. Mehta v Union of India (1987) — Oleum Gas Leak case — established
    1. Strict liability
    2. Absolute liability with no exceptions
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Statutory liability
  39. Q39. Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) established the
    1. Neighbour principle / duty of care in negligence
    2. Strict liability
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Res ipsa loquitur
  40. Q40. "Res ipsa loquitur" means
    1. The thing speaks for itself
    2. Let the master answer
    3. Beyond the powers
    4. As a matter of public policy
  41. Q41. Rylands v Fletcher (1868) propounded the rule of
    1. Absolute liability
    2. Strict liability — non-natural use
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Negligence per se
  42. Q42. Section 125 CrPC / 144 BNSS provides for
    1. Maintenance of wife, children and parents
    2. Divorce
    3. Custody of children
    4. Adoption
  43. Q43. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act 2005 made
    1. Daughters coparceners by birth
    2. Daughters coparceners only after marriage
    3. Sons sole coparceners
    4. No change to coparcenary
  44. Q44. Shayara Bano v Union of India (2017) held
    1. Triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) unconstitutional
    2. Polygamy unconstitutional
    3. Mahr unconstitutional
    4. Iddat period unconstitutional
  45. Q45. The Hindu Marriage Act was enacted in
    1. 1955
    2. 1956
    3. 1937
    4. 1939
  46. Q46. The Transfer of Property Act was enacted in
    1. 1872
    2. 1882
    3. 1908
    4. 1930
  47. Q47. Section 53A of TPA deals with
    1. Doctrine of part performance
    2. Rule against perpetuities
    3. Constructive notice
    4. Lis pendens
  48. Q48. Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act provides for
    1. Recovery of possession of immovable property
    2. Specific performance
    3. Injunction
    4. Declaration
  49. Q49. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment 1976 is also known as
    1. Mini Constitution
    2. Magna Carta
    3. Indian Bill of Rights
    4. Constituent Act
  50. Q50. The doctrine of "Pith and Substance" relates to
    1. Legislative competence
    2. Fundamental Rights
    3. Directive Principles
    4. Emergency provisions