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Daily MCQ Paper — 4 May 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 4 May 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. Habeas corpus is issued
    1. Against private parties only
    2. By the Supreme Court / High Courts to produce a person
    3. Only in fundamental-rights cases
    4. By President
  2. Q2. Article 14 guarantees
    1. Equality before the law and equal protection of laws
    2. Right to life
    3. Freedom of speech
    4. Right to property
  3. Q3. Article 32 was called the "heart and soul" by
    1. Nehru
    2. Patel
    3. Ambedkar
    4. Rajagopalachari
  4. Q4. Basic structure doctrine was propounded in
    1. Golak Nath
    2. Kesavananda Bharati
    3. Minerva Mills
    4. Indira Nehru Gandhi
  5. Q5. Right against double jeopardy is enshrined in
    1. Art 20(1)
    2. Art 20(2)
    3. Art 20(3)
    4. Art 21
  6. Q6. Right to privacy was declared a Fundamental Right in
    1. Maneka Gandhi
    2. Puttaswamy
    3. Naz Foundation
    4. Vishaka
  7. Q7. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution flows from
    1. Art 248
    2. Art 368
    3. Art 246
    4. Art 226
  8. Q8. Doctrine of pleasure regarding civil services is in
    1. Art 309
    2. Art 310
    3. Art 311
    4. Art 312
  9. Q9. Which writ is issued against a public officer to compel duty?
    1. Habeas corpus
    2. Mandamus
    3. Certiorari
    4. Quo warranto
  10. Q10. Concurrent List is in which Schedule?
    1. 7th
    2. 8th
    3. 9th
    4. 10th
  11. Q11. Murder under IPC was defined in Section
    1. 299
    2. 300
    3. 302
    4. 304
  12. Q12. BNS 2023 replaces
    1. CrPC
    2. IPC 1860
    3. Indian Evidence Act
    4. Indian Penal Code (1860) only
  13. Q13. Mens rea means
    1. Guilty body
    2. Guilty mind
    3. Guilty silence
    4. Guilty conduct
  14. Q14. Section 498A IPC deals with
    1. Dowry
    2. Cruelty by husband or his relatives
    3. Domestic violence civil
    4. Adultery
  15. Q15. Theft requires intention to take property
    1. Permanently
    2. Dishonestly without consent
    3. Forcefully
    4. Openly
  16. Q16. Strict liability offences require
    1. Mens rea always
    2. No mens rea
    3. Recklessness
    4. Negligence
  17. Q17. Common intention is in IPC §
    1. 34
    2. 149
    3. 120A
    4. 141
  18. Q18. Right of private defence of body extends to causing death under §
    1. 100
    2. 101
    3. 102
    4. 97
  19. Q19. Under the BNS, the offence of mob lynching is dealt with under section
    1. 103
    2. 110
    3. 111
    4. 115
  20. Q20. Sec 124A IPC dealt with
    1. Treason
    2. Sedition
    3. Waging war
    4. Secession
  21. Q21. BNSS replaces
    1. CrPC 1973
    2. IPC 1860
    3. Evidence Act 1872
    4. POCSO
  22. Q22. FIR is registered under CrPC §
    1. 154
    2. 161
    3. 164
    4. 156
  23. Q23. Maximum period of police custody under §167 CrPC
    1. 7 days
    2. 15 days
    3. 30 days
    4. 60 days
  24. Q24. Anticipatory bail provision is
    1. §438 CrPC
    2. §437
    3. §439
    4. §439A
  25. Q25. Sec 482 CrPC deals with
    1. Inherent powers of HC
    2. Magistrate's powers
    3. Witness summons
    4. Bail
  26. Q26. Cognisance of an offence is taken by
    1. Police
    2. Magistrate
    3. Public prosecutor
    4. Court of Session
  27. Q27. Plea bargaining was introduced in CrPC by
    1. Cr. Law Amendment 2005
    2. CrPC 1973 originally
    3. Amendment 2008
    4. Amendment 2018
  28. Q28. Hearsay evidence is generally
    1. Admissible
    2. Inadmissible with limited exceptions
    3. Always admissible
    4. Admissible in criminal cases only
  29. Q29. Burden of proof in criminal cases lies on
    1. Accused
    2. Prosecution
    3. Court
    4. Witness
  30. Q30. Doctrine of res gestae appears in
    1. §6
    2. §7
    3. §8
    4. §32
  31. Q31. Dying declaration is admissible under
    1. §32(1)
    2. §33
    3. §35
    4. §45
  32. Q32. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaces
    1. IPC
    2. Evidence Act 1872
    3. CrPC
    4. POCSO
  33. Q33. Contract with a minor is
    1. Voidable
    2. Void ab initio
    3. Valid
    4. Enforceable
  34. Q34. Free consent is defined in §
    1. 13
    2. 14
    3. 15
    4. 16
  35. Q35. Specific performance of contract is governed by
    1. ICA 1872
    2. Specific Relief Act 1963
    3. Sale of Goods Act
    4. TPA
  36. Q36. Consideration is defined in §
    1. 2(d)
    2. 2(e)
    3. 2(g)
    4. 2(h)
  37. Q37. An agreement without consideration is
    1. Void
    2. Voidable
    3. Valid
    4. Illegal
  38. Q38. Absolute liability was evolved in India in
    1. M C Mehta v. UoI (1986)
    2. Bhopal case
    3. Vellore Citizens
    4. Rylands case
  39. Q39. Vicarious liability of master for servant requires the act to be done
    1. Outside employment
    2. In course of employment
    3. Privately
    4. Voluntarily
  40. Q40. Rule in Rylands v Fletcher (1868) imposes
    1. Strict liability
    2. Absolute liability
    3. No-fault liability
    4. Vicarious liability
  41. Q41. Defamation has elements
    1. Statement, publication, reference, defamatory imputation
    2. Loss only
    3. Intention only
    4. Truth only
  42. Q42. Section 13 of HMA 1955 deals with
    1. Marriage
    2. Restitution of conjugal rights
    3. Divorce
    4. Maintenance
  43. Q43. Mehr (Dower) under Muslim law is
    1. Optional
    2. Obligatory
    3. A gift
    4. A loan
  44. Q44. Iddat is the period observed by a Muslim woman
    1. Before marriage
    2. After divorce or husband's death
    3. During marriage
    4. Only after death
  45. Q45. Triple talaq was declared unconstitutional in
    1. Shah Bano
    2. Shayara Bano
    3. Danial Latifi
    4. Sarla Mudgal
  46. Q46. Doctrine of part performance is in
    1. §52
    2. §53
    3. §53A
    4. §54
  47. Q47. Transfer of Property Act, 1882 applies to
    1. Movable property only
    2. Immovable property by act of parties
    3. Both
    4. Testamentary transfers
  48. Q48. Specific Relief Act 1963 was significantly amended in
    1. 2018
    2. 2019
    3. 2020
    4. 2021
  49. Q49. "Stare decisis" means
    1. To stand by what is decided
    2. To overrule precedent
    3. To dissent
    4. To remand
  50. Q50. The Latin maxim "audi alteram partem" means
    1. Hear the other side
    2. No one shall be a judge
    3. Beyond reasonable doubt
    4. Let the master answer