Chhattisgarh HJS (District Judge) — Prelims Pattern Mock 1 (100 Questions)

Q1. [Commercial] ‘Complainant’ under CPA 2019 includes:

• A. Only the buyer
• B. Consumer, association, legal heir, Central/State Govt
• C. Only Govt
• D. Only seller

Q2. [Commercial] Salomon v. Salomon established:

• A. Lifting the veil
• B. Separate legal personality
• C. Ultra vires
• D. Constructive notice

Q3. [Limitation] Limitation Act, 1963 — bar of limitation:

• A. s.3
• B. s.4
• C. s.5
• D. s.6

Q4. [Limitation] Expiry of period when court closed — Limitation:

• A. s.3
• B. s.4
• C. s.5
• D. s.9

Q5. [Limitation] Extension (condonation) of prescribed period — Limitation:

• A. s.4
• B. s.5
• C. s.6
• D. s.7

Q6. [Limitation] Legal disability — Limitation:

• A. s.5
• B. s.6
• C. s.7
• D. s.8

Q7. [Limitation] Continuous running of time — Limitation:

• A. s.8
• B. s.9
• C. s.10
• D. s.11

Q8. [Limitation] Effect of acknowledgment in writing — Limitation:

• A. s.14
• B. s.18
• C. s.19
• D. s.20

Q9. [Limitation] Effect of part payment of debt — Limitation:

• A. s.18
• B. s.19
• C. s.20
• D. s.21

Q10. [Limitation] Exclusion of time in bona fide proceeding in wrong court — Limitation:

• A. s.12
• B. s.13
• C. s.14
• D. s.15

Q11. [Limitation] Suit for possession based on title — Article:

• A. Art.58
• B. Art.64
• C. Art.65
• D. Art.113

Q12. [Limitation] Suit for possession (dispossession) based on prior possession — Article:

• A. Art.64
• B. Art.65
• C. Art.113
• D. Art.58

Q13. [Limitation] Residuary article (suits) — Article:

• A. Art.58
• B. Art.113
• C. Art.120
• D. Art.137

Q14. [Limitation] Residuary article (applications) — Article:

• A. Art.113
• B. Art.120
• C. Art.136
• D. Art.137

Q15. [Limitation] Redemption of mortgage — Article:

• A. Art.61
• B. Art.65
• C. Art.113
• D. Art.136

Q16. [Limitation] Execution of a decree — Article:

• A. Art.134
• B. Art.136
• C. Art.137
• D. Art.113

Q17. [Limitation] Suit for declaration — Article:

• A. Art.56
• B. Art.58
• C. Art.64
• D. Art.113

Q18. [Family Law] Hindu Marriage Act — conditions for a valid marriage:

• A. s.5
• B. s.7
• C. s.9
• D. s.13

Q19. [Family Law] Hindu Marriage Act — ceremonies (saptapadi):

• A. s.5
• B. s.7
• C. s.9
• D. s.11

Q20. [Family Law] Hindu Marriage Act — void marriages:

• A. s.11
• B. s.12
• C. s.13
• D. s.5

Q21. [Family Law] Hindu Marriage Act — voidable marriages:

• A. s.11
• B. s.12
• C. s.13
• D. s.14

Q22. [Family Law] Hindu Marriage Act — divorce grounds:

• A. s.11
• B. s.12
• C. s.13
• D. s.13B

Q23. [Family Law] Hindu Marriage Act — divorce by mutual consent:

• A. s.13
• B. s.13A
• C. s.13B
• D. s.14

Q24. [Family Law] Hindu Succession Act — daughter as coparcener (2005):

• A. s.6
• B. s.8
• C. s.14
• D. s.15

Q25. [Family Law] Hindu Succession Act — absolute property of a female Hindu:

• A. s.6
• B. s.14
• C. s.15
• D. s.16

Q26. [Family Law] Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma held daughter’s coparcenary right is:

• A. On father’s survival
• B. By birth (father need not be alive on 9-9-2005)
• C. Only if married
• D. Not retroactive

Q27. [Family Law] Guardians and Wards Act / HMG Act — natural guardian of a minor:

• A. Only mother
• B. Father, then mother (HMG Act s.6)
• C. Court only
• D. Grandfather

Q28. [Family Law] Maintenance of wife/children/parents (secular) is under:

• A. HMA
• B. s.144 BNSS (old s.125 CrPC)
• C. TPA
• D. ICA

Q29. [Family Law] Muslim law — a marriage (nikah) is essentially a:

• A. Sacrament
• B. Civil contract
• C. Registration
• D. Decree

Q30. [Family Law] Muslim law — ‘iddat’ is:

• A. Dower
• B. Waiting period after divorce/death
• C. Gift
• D. Guardianship

Q31. [Family Law] ‘Mehr’ (dower) in Muslim law is:

• A. A gift by wife
• B. A sum payable by husband to wife
• C. Maintenance
• D. A tax

Q32. [Family Law] Special Marriage Act, 1954 provides for:

• A. Only Hindu marriage
• B. Civil/inter-faith marriage & registration
• C. Divorce only
• D. Adoption

Q33. [Torts] A tort is essentially a:

• A. Crime
• B. Civil wrong (unliquidated damages)
• C. Breach of contract
• D. Statutory offence

Q34. [Torts] ‘Injuria sine damno’ means:

• A. Damage without injury
• B. Legal injury without actual damage
• C. No remedy
• D. Contributory negligence

Q35. [Torts] ‘Damnum sine injuria’ means:

• A. Legal injury only
• B. Actual loss without violation of a legal right
• C. Both
• D. Neither

Q36. [Torts] Strict liability rule laid down in:

• A. Donoghue v. Stevenson
• B. Rylands v. Fletcher
• C. Ashby v. White
• D. Bourhill v. Young

Q37. [Torts] Absolute liability (no exceptions) laid down in:

• A. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
• B. Rylands v. Fletcher
• C. Donoghue
• D. Ryland

Q38. [Torts] The ‘neighbour principle’ (duty of care) is from:

• A. Rylands v. Fletcher
• B. Donoghue v. Stevenson
• C. Ashby v. White
• D. Wagon Mound

Q39. [Torts] Remoteness of damage test (reasonable foreseeability) — case:

• A. Re Polemis
• B. Wagon Mound
• C. Rylands
• D. Donoghue

Q40. [Torts] ‘Volenti non fit injuria’ is a defence of:

• A. Necessity
• B. Consent to risk
• C. Act of God
• D. Inevitable accident

Q41. [Torts] Vicarious liability of master for servant’s tort requires the tort be in:

• A. Any act
• B. The course of employment
• C. Private time
• D. Off duty

Q42. [Torts] Contributory negligence means:

• A. Only defendant negligent
• B. Plaintiff’s own negligence contributed to harm
• C. No negligence
• D. Absolute liability

Q43. [Torts] Defamation requires the statement to be:

• A. True
• B. False and defamatory, published to a third party
• C. Oral only
• D. Written only

Q44. [Torts] Nuisance (private) protects:

• A. Public health
• B. Use and enjoyment of land
• C. Reputation
• D. Contract

Q45. [Torts] Trespass to land is actionable:

• A. Only with damage
• B. Per se (without proof of damage)
• C. Never
• D. Only if forceful

Q46. [Torts] Malicious prosecution requires:

• A. Only prosecution
• B. Malice, absence of reasonable cause, favourable termination, damage
• C. Only malice
• D. Only damage

Q47. [Torts] The tort of negligence requires duty, breach and:

• A. Motive
• B. Damage caused by the breach (causation, not too remote)
• C. Intention
• D. Publication

Q48. [Jurisprudence] Austin’s theory of law is the:

• A. Natural law theory
• B. Command theory (law as sovereign’s command)
• C. Pure theory
• D. Historical theory

Q49. [Jurisprudence] Kelsen propounded the:

• A. Command theory
• B. Pure theory of law (Grundnorm)
• C. Historical school
• D. Sociological school

Q50. [Jurisprudence] Savigny is associated with the:

• A. Analytical school
• B. Historical school (Volksgeist)
• C. Realist school
• D. Natural law

Q51. [Jurisprudence] Roscoe Pound’s ‘social engineering’ belongs to the:

• A. Analytical
• B. Sociological school
• C. Historical
• D. Natural

Q52. [Jurisprudence] Hohfeld’s jural correlative of a ‘right’ is a:

• A. Privilege
• B. Duty
• C. Power
• D. Immunity

Q53. [Jurisprudence] The literal/grammatical rule of interpretation gives words their:

• A. Purposive meaning
• B. Plain, ordinary meaning
• C. Widest meaning
• D. Narrow meaning

Q54. [Jurisprudence] The ‘golden rule’ of interpretation:

• A. Always literal
• B. Literal unless it leads to absurdity, then modify
• C. Always purposive
• D. Ignores text

Q55. [Jurisprudence] The ‘mischief rule’ comes from:

• A. Heydon’s Case
• B. Salomon
• C. Donoghue
• D. Kesavananda

Q56. [Jurisprudence] ‘Ejusdem generis’ means general words following specific words take:

• A. Widest meaning
• B. Colour from the specific class
• C. No meaning
• D. Literal meaning

Q57. [Jurisprudence] ‘Noscitur a sociis’ means a word is known by:

• A. Its dictionary meaning
• B. The company/context it keeps
• C. Its Latin root
• D. Legislative debates

Q58. [Jurisprudence] A ‘preamble’ to a statute is:

• A. Operative
• B. A key to the makers’ intention (aid to construction)
• C. Binding law
• D. Irrelevant

Q59. [Jurisprudence] ‘Ratio decidendi’ is binding while ‘obiter dicta’ are:

• A. Also binding
• B. Persuasive only
• C. Void
• D. Facts

Q60. [Jurisprudence] Delegated legislation refers to:

• A. Acts of Parliament
• B. Rules/regulations made by the executive under delegated power
• C. Judgments
• D. Ordinances

Q61. [Jurisprudence] ‘Stare decisis’ promotes:

• A. Uncertainty
• B. Certainty & consistency via precedent
• C. Arbitrariness
• D. Delay

Q62. [Jurisprudence] A ‘legal fiction’ is:

• A. A false statement
• B. An assumption of fact the law recognises as true
• C. A crime
• D. An estoppel

Q63. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Ubi jus ibi remedium’:

• A. No right no remedy
• B. Where there is a right there is a remedy
• C. Buyer beware
• D. Hear both sides

Q64. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea’:

• A. Act alone guilty
• B. Act not guilty unless mind is guilty
• C. Strict liability
• D. No mens rea needed

Q65. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Nemo judex in causa sua’:

• A. Hear other side
• B. No one a judge in his own cause
• C. Delay defeats equity
• D. Ignorance no excuse

Q66. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Audi alteram partem’:

• A. Rule against bias
• B. Hear the other side
• C. No remedy
• D. Estoppel

Q67. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Res ipsa loquitur’:

• A. Hear both sides
• B. The thing speaks for itself
• C. No one above law
• D. Buyer beware

Q68. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Qui facit per alium facit per se’:

• A. Do it yourself
• B. He who acts through another acts himself
• C. No agency
• D. No liability

Q69. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Volenti non fit injuria’:

• A. No consent
• B. To a willing person no injury is done
• C. Contributory negligence
• D. Necessity

Q70. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Ignorantia juris non excusat’:

• A. Ignorance of fact excuses
• B. Ignorance of law is no excuse
• C. No mens rea
• D. Strict liability

Q71. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus’ in India is:

• A. A binding rule
• B. Not a rule of law (evidence is sifted)
• C. Conclusive
• D. Mandatory

Q72. [Maxims/Cases] Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India expanded:

• A. Right to property
• B. Art.21 (fair, just, reasonable procedure)
• C. Reservation
• D. Federalism

Q73. [Maxims/Cases] Kesavananda Bharati established:

• A. Basic structure doctrine
• B. Right to privacy
• C. Reservation cap
• D. Bail rule

Q74. [Maxims/Cases] K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India recognised:

• A. Right to property
• B. Right to privacy as a fundamental right
• C. Reservation
• D. Sedition

Q75. [Maxims/Cases] Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan laid down guidelines on:

• A. Bail
• B. Sexual harassment at workplace
• C. Arrest
• D. Custody

Q76. [Maxims/Cases] D.K. Basu v. State of W.B. laid down:

• A. Bail guidelines
• B. Arrest & detention safeguards
• C. FIR registration
• D. Evidence rules

Q77. [Maxims/Cases] Lalita Kumari v. Govt of U.P. — FIR registration for cognizable offences is:

• A. Discretionary
• B. Mandatory
• C. Optional
• D. Barred

Q78. [Maxims/Cases] Selvi v. State of Karnataka dealt with:

• A. Narco/polygraph tests & Art.20(3)
• B. Bail
• C. Reservation
• D. Property

Q79. [Maxims/Cases] Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India concerned:

• A. Internet shutdowns & freedom of speech
• B. Bail
• C. Dowry
• D. Land

Q80. [Maxims/Cases] Joseph Shine v. Union of India decriminalised:

• A. Sedition
• B. Adultery
• C. Attempt to suicide
• D. Homosexuality

Q81. [BNSS 2023] Default bail arises when charge-sheet not filed within (grave offence) — BNSS:

• A. 30 days
• B. 60 days
• C. 90 days
• D. 180 days

Q82. [BNSS 2023] Zero FIR concept means FIR registered:

• A. At place of offence only
• B. At any station regardless of jurisdiction
• C. Online only
• D. By Magistrate

Q83. [Constitution] Right to privacy recognised as part of Art.21 in:

• A. ADM Jabalpur
• B. K.S. Puttaswamy
• C. Gopalan
• D. Kharak Singh

Q84. [CPC] ‘Suit of a civil nature’ is triable by civil courts unless:

• A. Always
• B. Barred expressly or impliedly
• C. Never
• D. Only with leave

Q85. [Evidence/BSA] Standard of proof in criminal cases:

• A. Preponderance
• B. Beyond reasonable doubt
• C. Prima facie
• D. Balance

Q86. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code (adapted from MP) is of the year:

• A. 1954
• B. 1959
• C. 1966
• D. 2000

Q87. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The principal tenure-holder under the CG Land Revenue Code is the:

• A. Asami
• B. Bhumiswami
• C. Government lessee
• D. Occupancy tenant

Q88. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act was enacted in:

• A. 1961
• B. 2001
• C. 2011
• D. 2016

Q89. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Under the CG Rent Control Act, eviction is permitted:

• A. At will
• B. Only on statutory grounds before the Rent Controlling Authority
• C. Never
• D. On 1 month notice

Q90. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Mutation of land in CG revenue records:

• A. Confers title
• B. Is fiscal only
• C. Is a decree
• D. Bars civil suit

Q91. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The Chhattisgarh High Court is located at:

• A. Raipur
• B. Bilaspur
• C. Durg
• D. Korba

Q92. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The apex revenue court in Chhattisgarh is the:

• A. Collector
• B. Board of Revenue
• C. Tehsildar
• D. SDO

Q93. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Restrictions on transfer of tribal (aboriginal) land in CG are provided in the:

• A. Rent Control Act
• B. Land Revenue Code (ss. on transfer by aboriginal)
• C. Contract Act
• D. Arbitration Act

Q94. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Transfer of land by an aboriginal to a non-aboriginal in CG generally requires:

• A. No permission
• B. Permission of the Collector/competent authority
• C. A civil decree
• D. Only mutation

Q95. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Partition of agricultural holdings in CG is decided by the:

• A. Civil court
• B. Revenue court
• C. High Court
• D. Panchayat

Q96. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Diversion of agricultural land to non-agricultural use in CG requires:

• A. No order
• B. An order of the competent revenue authority
• C. A civil decree
• D. Only mutation

Q97. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] CG judicial service exams are conducted by the:

• A. CGPSC
• B. Chhattisgarh High Court
• C. CG Vyapam
• D. UPSC

Q98. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] A ‘khasra’ in revenue records is a:

• A. Field/plot register
• B. Criminal charge
• C. Rent deed
• D. Civil decree

Q99. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Ejectment of an unauthorised occupant of agricultural land in CG is before the:

• A. Civil court
• B. Revenue court
• C. Consumer forum
• D. Sessions court

Q100. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Appeals under the CG Land Revenue Code lie up to the:

• A. District Judge
• B. Board of Revenue
• C. High Court directly
• D. Supreme Court