MP HJS (District Judge) — Prelims Pattern Mock 2 (100 Questions)

Q1. [CPC] ‘Mesne profits’ means profits which the person in wrongful possession:

• A. Actually received only
• B. Received or might have received with ordinary diligence, plus interest
• C. Promised
• D. Deposited

Q2. [CPC] An ‘affidavit’ must be confined to facts:

• A. Of belief only
• B. Within the deponent’s personal knowledge (except interlocutory)
• C. Of law
• D. Hearsay

Q3. [CPC] A ‘set-off’ is claimed in the:

• A. Plaint
• B. Written statement
• C. Appeal
• D. Execution

Q4. [CPC] An ‘equitable set-off’ differs from legal set-off in that it:

• A. Must be ascertained sum
• B. May be an unascertained sum arising from the same transaction
• C. Needs court fee only
• D. Is barred

Q5. [CPC] A ‘counter-claim’ is treated as a:

• A. Defence only
• B. Cross-suit
• C. Appeal
• D. Reference

Q6. [CPC] ‘Cause of action’ means:

• A. Relief claimed
• B. Bundle of facts the plaintiff must prove to succeed
• C. The decree
• D. The evidence

Q7. [CPC] Order 1 Rule 8 relates to:

• A. Interpleader
• B. Representative suit (numerous persons, same interest)
• C. Set-off
• D. Injunction

Q8. [CPC] A ‘next friend’ represents a:

• A. Company
• B. Minor plaintiff
• C. Government
• D. Firm

Q9. [CPC] ‘Guardian ad litem’ is appointed for a:

• A. Minor plaintiff
• B. Minor/UOSM defendant
• C. Company
• D. Firm

Q10. [CPC] Under Order 33, an ‘indigent person’ is one who:

• A. Owns no land
• B. Has insufficient means to pay the prescribed court fee
• C. Is unemployed
• D. Is illiterate

Q11. [CPC] A suit abates on death of a party if:

• A. Always
• B. The right to sue does not survive / LR not brought on record in time
• C. Never
• D. On withdrawal

Q12. [CPC] ‘Actio personalis moritur cum persona’ means:

• A. Action survives
• B. A personal action dies with the person
• C. Res judicata
• D. Set-off

Q13. [CPC] Interpleader suit is filed by a person who:

• A. Claims the property
• B. Has no interest but faces rival claims to property/debt
• C. Is a creditor
• D. Is a surety

Q14. [CPC] Order 21 Rule 32 concerns execution of a decree for:

• A. Money
• B. Specific performance/injunction (by detention/attachment)
• C. Possession
• D. Partition

Q15. [CPC] A judgment-debtor can be arrested in execution of a money decree subject to:

• A. No conditions
• B. Show-cause and exemptions (Order 21 R.37-40)
• C. Only with FIR
• D. Never

Q16. [CPC] ‘Precept’ in execution means:

• A. A decree
• B. An order to another court to attach property
• C. A summons
• D. An injunction

Q17. [CPC] Objections to attachment by a third party (claim petition) are under:

• A. O.21 R.58
• B. O.21 R.90
• C. O.21 R.97
• D. O.38

Q18. [CPC] Setting aside a court-auction sale for material irregularity/fraud is under:

• A. O.21 R.89
• B. O.21 R.90
• C. O.21 R.91
• D. O.21 R.92

Q19. [CPC] Resistance to delivery of possession by a stranger is dealt with under:

• A. O.21 R.97
• B. O.21 R.35
• C. O.21 R.58
• D. O.21 R.90

Q20. [CPC] A decree for partition of an estate assessed to Government revenue is executed by the:

• A. Civil court
• B. Collector
• C. High Court
• D. Board of Revenue

Q21. [CPC] A first appeal can be filed on questions of:

• A. Law only
• B. Both fact and law
• C. Fact only
• D. Procedure only

Q22. [CPC] In a second appeal the High Court must formulate:

• A. Any question
• B. The substantial question of law
• C. Issues
• D. Charges

Q23. [CPC] Cross-objections in an appeal are filed under:

• A. O.41 R.22
• B. O.41 R.27
• C. O.41 R.33
• D. O.43

Q24. [CPC] Additional evidence in appeal is allowed under:

• A. O.41 R.22
• B. O.41 R.27
• C. O.41 R.33
• D. O.47

Q25. [CPC] Power of the appellate court to pass any decree/order ‘ought to have been passed’ is:

• A. O.41 R.22
• B. O.41 R.27
• C. O.41 R.33
• D. O.42

Q26. [CPC] A review petition can be filed on:

• A. Any ground
• B. Discovery of new evidence, error apparent, or other sufficient reason
• C. Only law
• D. New counsel

Q27. [CPC] Revision under s.115 lies where the subordinate court:

• A. Erred on facts
• B. Exercised jurisdiction not vested / failed to exercise / acted illegally
• C. Any error
• D. Delayed

Q28. [CPC] An ‘interlocutory order’ is one which:

• A. Finally decides the suit
• B. Is passed during the pendency, not finally deciding rights
• C. Is a decree
• D. Is an appeal

Q29. [CPC] ‘Sub judice’ literally means:

• A. Already decided
• B. Under judicial consideration
• C. Beyond jurisdiction
• D. Withdrawn

Q30. [CPC] A foreign judgment is NOT conclusive if (s.13):

• A. Passed on merits
• B. Not on merits / against natural justice / by incompetent court / fraud
• C. Registered
• D. Certified

Q31. [CPC] ‘Order’ means the formal expression of a decision which is:

• A. A decree
• B. Not a decree
• C. A judgment
• D. A plaint

Q32. [CPC] An issue may be one of:

• A. Fact only
• B. Fact or law or mixed
• C. Law only
• D. Procedure

Q33. [CPC] Pleadings should contain:

• A. Evidence
• B. Material facts, not evidence
• C. Law
• D. Arguments

Q34. [CPC] Striking out pleadings (scandalous, frivolous) is under:

• A. O.6 R.16
• B. O.6 R.17
• C. O.7 R.11
• D. O.8 R.10

Q35. [CPC] Judgment on admissions is under:

• A. O.11
• B. O.12 R.6
• C. O.13
• D. O.15

Q36. [CPC] Where no written statement is filed, the court may:

• A. Dismiss
• B. Pronounce judgment (O.8 R.10)
• C. Adjourn indefinitely
• D. Refer

Q37. [CPC] Disposal of a suit at the first hearing is possible under:

• A. O.14
• B. O.15
• C. O.16
• D. O.17

Q38. [CPC] ‘Decree-holder’ is defined in:

• A. s.2(3)
• B. s.2(10)
• C. s.2(12)
• D. s.2(2)

Q39. [CPC] ‘Judgment-debtor’ is defined in:

• A. s.2(3)
• B. s.2(10)
• C. s.2(12)
• D. s.2(9)

Q40. [CPC] A commission to make a local investigation is under:

• A. O.26 R.4
• B. O.26 R.9
• C. O.26 R.10A
• D. O.27

Q41. [CPC] Transfer of decree for execution to another court is under:

• A. s.38
• B. s.39
• C. s.40
• D. s.42

Q42. [CPC] The court executing a transferred decree has the powers under:

• A. s.39
• B. s.42
• C. s.47
• D. s.51

Q43. [CPC] Questions between parties to the suit relating to execution are decided under:

• A. s.42
• B. s.47
• C. s.51
• D. s.60

Q44. [CPC] Property exempt from attachment (tools of artisans, etc.) is under:

• A. s.51
• B. s.60 proviso
• C. s.64
• D. s.73

Q45. [CPC] Rateable distribution among decree-holders is under:

• A. s.60
• B. s.64
• C. s.73
• D. s.144

Q46. [Evidence/BSA] ‘May presume’ allows the court to:

• A. Regard proved conclusively
• B. Either presume or call for proof
• C. Ignore
• D. Not presume

Q47. [Evidence/BSA] The doctrine of ‘res gestae’ makes relevant facts that are:

• A. Remote
• B. Part of the same transaction
• C. Hearsay
• D. Opinion

Q48. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Alibi’ plea is admitted under the relevancy provision (old s.11) because it:

• A. Is a confession
• B. Makes a fact in issue highly improbable
• C. Is opinion
• D. Is hearsay

Q49. [Evidence/BSA] A ‘leading question’ may be asked in examination-in-chief:

• A. Never
• B. With the court’s permission (introductory/undisputed/already proved)
• C. Always
• D. Only for experts

Q50. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Corpus delicti’ refers to:

• A. The accused
• B. The body/substance of the crime
• C. The witness
• D. The confession

Q51. [Evidence/BSA] Circumstantial evidence must exclude:

• A. Motive
• B. Every reasonable hypothesis of innocence
• C. The accused
• D. Documents

Q52. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Test identification parade’ (TIP) evidence is:

• A. Substantive
• B. Corroborative (to identification in court)
• C. Conclusive
• D. Hearsay

Q53. [Evidence/BSA] An ‘expert’ witness gives evidence of:

• A. Facts he saw
• B. Opinion in his field of expertise
• C. Character
• D. Hearsay

Q54. [Evidence/BSA] The rule in Pakala Narayana Swami relates to:

• A. Bail
• B. Scope of ‘circumstances of transaction’ in dying declaration
• C. Arrest
• D. Set-off

Q55. [Evidence/BSA] A confession which is retracted:

• A. Cannot be used
• B. Can be relied on if voluntary, true, and generally corroborated
• C. Is conclusive
• D. Is a public document

Q56. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Hostile witness’ testimony is:

• A. Wholly rejected
• B. Not wholly rejected; the credible part may be relied upon
• C. Conclusive
• D. Inadmissible

Q57. [Evidence/BSA] Secondary evidence of a lost document requires proof of:

• A. Nothing
• B. Existence, execution and loss of the original
• C. Registration
• D. Attestation only

Q58. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Presumption of dowry death’ arises when death is within:

• A. 3 years
• B. 7 years
• C. 5 years
• D. 10 years

Q59. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Motive’ in a criminal case is:

• A. Always essential
• B. A relevant fact, more important in circumstantial cases
• C. Conclusive
• D. Irrelevant

Q60. [Evidence/BSA] Documentary evidence generally prevails over oral evidence — this reflects:

• A. Best evidence rule
• B. Hearsay rule
• C. Opinion rule
• D. Estoppel

Q61. [Evidence/BSA] A ‘dying declaration’ need NOT be:

• A. Voluntary
• B. Made on oath / tested by cross-examination
• C. True
• D. By a fit person

Q62. [Evidence/BSA] Section on relevancy of judgments (bar/plea) — old:

• A. s.40
• B. s.42
• C. s.43
• D. s.44

Q63. [Evidence/BSA] Fraud/collusion in obtaining a prior judgment may be proved — old:

• A. s.42
• B. s.43
• C. s.44
• D. s.45

Q64. [Evidence/BSA] An accomplice’s evidence needs corroboration as a rule of:

• A. Law
• B. Prudence
• C. Procedure
• D. Estoppel

Q65. [Evidence/BSA] Contradicting a witness with his previous statement to police (s.161) is permitted to:

• A. Corroborate
• B. Contradict (old s.145 r/w s.162 CrPC)
• C. Confirm
• D. Refresh

Q66. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Onus probandi’ means the burden of:

• A. Pleading
• B. Proof
• C. Costs
• D. Appeal

Q67. [Evidence/BSA] A ‘privileged communication’ between spouses can be waived by:

• A. The court
• B. The spouse whose privilege it is (with consent)
• C. The police
• D. No one

Q68. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Estoppel’ prevents a person from:

• A. Filing suit
• B. Denying what he earlier represented and another acted upon
• C. Appealing
• D. Cross-examining

Q69. [Evidence/BSA] Judicial notice may be taken of:

• A. Disputed facts
• B. Laws in force, seals of courts, etc.
• C. Opinions
• D. Hearsay

Q70. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Res gestae’ statements are an exception to the rule against:

• A. Opinion
• B. Hearsay
• C. Estoppel
• D. Confession

Q71. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Facts especially within knowledge’ shifting burden — old s.106 — illustration:

• A. Alibi
• B. How the deceased died when alone with accused
• C. Motive
• D. Character

Q72. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Approver’ is an accomplice who is:

• A. Convicted
• B. Granted pardon to testify (s.306 CrPC/BNSS)
• C. Acquitted
• D. A witness only

Q73. [Evidence/BSA] Electronic record certificate requirement corresponds to old:

• A. s.65A
• B. s.65B
• C. s.45A
• D. s.90A

Q74. [Evidence/BSA] Opinion of examiner of electronic evidence corresponds to old:

• A. s.45
• B. s.45A
• C. s.46
• D. s.47

Q75. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Primary evidence’ of an electronic record includes:

• A. A printout only
• B. The record in each part where produced/stored (as per BSA)
• C. Oral account
• D. A copy

Q76. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Burden of proof’ vs ‘onus of proof’ — the onus:

• A. Never shifts
• B. Shifts during the trial as evidence is led
• C. Is fixed by pleadings only
• D. Is on the court

Q77. [Evidence/BSA] A witness declared hostile can be cross-examined by the party calling him under old:

• A. s.153
• B. s.154
• C. s.155
• D. s.145

Q78. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Substantive evidence’ vs corroborative — TIP and former statements are:

• A. Substantive
• B. Corroborative
• C. Conclusive
• D. Primary

Q79. [Evidence/BSA] The ‘last seen together’ theory shifts the burden when the gap in time is:

• A. Large
• B. Small (proximate to the death)
• C. Irrelevant
• D. A year

Q80. [Evidence/BSA] A confession recorded under s.164 must be preceded by:

• A. Nothing
• B. A warning and voluntariness check by the Magistrate
• C. An FIR
• D. A charge

Q81. [BNS 2023] ‘Wrongful gain’ and ‘wrongful loss’ are defined in the BNS in:

• A. s.2
• B. s.3
• C. s.4
• D. s.38

Q82. [BNS 2023] ‘Good faith’ under the BNS implies:

• A. Any belief
• B. Due care and attention
• C. Negligence
• D. Honesty only

Q83. [BNS 2023] ‘Public servant’ concept is relevant to offences of:

• A. Theft
• B. Corruption/misconduct by public servants
• C. Marriage
• D. Nuisance

Q84. [BNS 2023] Punishment for attempt (no specific provision) is up to:

• A. Full term
• B. One-half of the longest term
• C. One-fourth
• D. Fine only

Q85. [BNS 2023] ‘Culpable homicide’ Exception for sudden fight requires:

• A. Premeditation
• B. No premeditation, sudden fight, no undue advantage
• C. A weapon
• D. Provocation by third party

Q86. [MP Local Law] The apex revenue court in Madhya Pradesh is the:

• A. Collector
• B. Board of Revenue (Gwalior)
• C. Tehsildar
• D. SDO

Q87. [MP Local Law] Under the MP Land Revenue Code, village land records are maintained by the:

• A. SDM
• B. Patwari
• C. Tehsildar
• D. Collector

Q88. [MP Local Law] Diversion of agricultural land to non-agricultural use in MP needs permission of the:

• A. Patwari
• B. Collector/competent revenue authority
• C. Gram Sabha
• D. Civil Judge

Q89. [MP Local Law] Under the MP Accommodation Control Act, a tenant in arrears may avoid eviction by:

• A. Nothing
• B. Depositing/paying arrears as provided
• C. Appealing only
• D. Vacating

Q90. [MP Local Law] Ceiling on agricultural holdings in MP is under the:

• A. MP Accommodation Control Act
• B. MP Ceiling on Agricultural Holdings Act, 1960
• C. Rent Act
• D. TPA

Q91. [MP Local Law] A ‘bhumiswami’ under the MP Code has rights that are:

• A. Non-transferable
• B. Heritable and transferable (subject to restrictions)
• C. Only for life
• D. Government’s

Q92. [MP Local Law] Restriction on transfer of land of a member of an aboriginal tribe in MP requires:

• A. No permission
• B. Collector’s permission
• C. Gram Sabha only
• D. Civil decree

Q93. [MP Local Law] Appeal from a Tehsildar’s order in MP lies to the:

• A. High Court
• B. SDO/Collector (as prescribed)
• C. Board of Revenue directly
• D. Civil Judge

Q94. [MP Local Law] A revenue survey and settlement fixes the:

• A. Rent control
• B. Land revenue assessment
• C. Criminal liability
• D. Bail

Q95. [MP Local Law] The MP judicial service (Civil Judge) recruitment is conducted by the:

• A. MPPSC alone
• B. MP High Court
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. UPSC

Q96. [MP Local Law] ‘Nistar’ rights under the MP Code relate to:

• A. Rent
• B. Customary rights over village common resources
• C. Bail
• D. Mutation

Q97. [MP Local Law] Under the MP Accommodation Control Act, ‘accommodation’ means:

• A. Only shops
• B. Any building/part let for residence or business
• C. Only houses
• D. Land only

Q98. [MP Local Law] Recovery of arrears of land revenue is made as:

• A. A civil suit
• B. Arrears recoverable as a revenue demand (coercive process)
• C. A crime
• D. A gift

Q99. [MP Local Law] Bhu-adhikar/rin pustika (land rights booklet) evidences:

• A. Criminal record
• B. A cultivator’s recorded land rights
• C. Rent
• D. A decree

Q100. [MP Local Law] The MP High Court’s principal seat is at Jabalpur with benches at:

• A. Bhopal & Raipur
• B. Indore & Gwalior
• C. Ujjain & Sagar
• D. Rewa & Satna