Chhattisgarh HJS (District Judge) — Prelims Pattern Mock 4 (100 Questions)

Q1. [CPC] A foreign judgment given ex parte without deciding on the merits of the case is:

• A. Always conclusive
• B. Not conclusive under Section 13(b)
• C. Conclusive only if the defendant was Indian
• D. Conclusive after limitation expires

Q2. [CPC] The power to transfer suits and appeals is conferred on the High Court and District Court by Section 24 CPC, and on the Supreme Court by:

• A. Section 22
• B. Section 23
• C. Section 25
• D. Section 151

Q3. [CPC] Under Order 39 Rule 2A CPC, disobedience of an injunction may be punished by attachment of property and detention in civil prison for a term not exceeding:

• A. One month
• B. Three months
• C. Six months
• D. One year

Q4. [CPC] An application for review under Section 114 read with Order 47 Rule 1 CPC may be made on the ground of discovery of new and important matter, mistake or error apparent on the face of record, or:

• A. A change in the law by a later judgment
• B. Any other sufficient reason
• C. Dissatisfaction of the party with the decree
• D. Death of the judge who decided

Q5. [CPC] The rule of res sub judice under Section 10 CPC requires the court to:

• A. Dismiss the later suit
• B. Stay the trial of a subsequently instituted suit where the matter is directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties
• C. Consolidate both suits automatically
• D. Refer the matter to arbitration

Q6. [CPC] Order 41 Rule 27 CPC permits the appellate court to admit additional evidence where:

• A. A party simply wishes to strengthen its case
• B. The court below refused to admit evidence which ought to have been admitted, or the appellate court requires it to pronounce judgment
• C. The appeal is against a consent decree
• D. Limitation for appeal has expired

Q7. [CPC] An objection by a third party claiming an interest in attached property is decided as a claim under:

• A. Order 21 Rules 58-63 CPC
• B. Order 22 Rule 4
• C. Order 38 Rule 5
• D. Section 60 CPC

Q8. [CPC] Mesne profits under Section 2(12) CPC are profits which the person in wrongful possession actually received or might with ordinary diligence have received, together with interest, but NOT profits due to:

• A. Natural growth of crops
• B. Improvements made by the person in wrongful possession
• C. Rent collected from tenants
• D. Use of buildings on the land

Q9. [CPC] Where a sole defendant dies and the right to sue survives, failure to bring the legal representatives on record within the period of limitation results in the suit:

• A. Being dismissed for default
• B. Abating as against the deceased defendant
• C. Being decreed ex parte
• D. Being transferred

Q10. [CPC] Where a plaintiff permitted to sue as an indigent person succeeds, under Order 33 Rule 10 CPC the court fee shall be:

• A. Waived permanently
• B. Recoverable by the State from the party as directed by the decree, and be a first charge on the subject matter of the suit
• C. Paid by the defendant’s advocate
• D. Refunded to the plaintiff

Q11. [CPC] Under Order 21 Rule 90 CPC, a sale of immovable property in execution may be set aside on the ground of:

• A. Mere inadequacy of price alone
• B. Material irregularity or fraud in publishing or conducting the sale, causing substantial injury
• C. Non-payment of court fee
• D. Delay in confirming the sale

Q12. [Limitation] The proviso to Section 9 of the Limitation Act carves out an exception in the case of:

• A. Suits for possession
• B. The administration of the estate of a deceased person where a debtor becomes the creditor’s representative
• C. Mortgage suits
• D. Contract suits

Q13. [Limitation] In computing the period of limitation, Section 12 of the Limitation Act excludes:

• A. The whole period of the pendency of the suit
• B. The day from which the period is to be reckoned, and in appeals the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree and judgment
• C. Only public holidays
• D. The period of any injunction

Q14. [Limitation] The period of limitation for a suit for compensation for breach of a contract, where no special article applies, is generally:

• A. One year
• B. Three years from when the contract is broken
• C. Six years
• D. Twelve years

Q15. [Specific Relief] Substituted performance introduced by Section 20 of the Specific Relief Act (2018) permits the aggrieved party, on breach, to:

• A. Claim double damages automatically
• B. Get the contract performed by a third party or through his own agency and recover the expenses from the defaulting party, after notice
• C. Rescind without notice
• D. Seek imprisonment of the defaulter

Q16. [Specific Relief] Under Section 19 of the Specific Relief Act, specific performance may be enforced against, among others:

• A. A bona fide transferee for value without notice of the original contract
• B. A subsequent transferee who has taken with notice of the prior contract, or without consideration
• C. A stranger who never dealt with the property
• D. The Registrar of Assurances

Q17. [Specific Relief] Where an instrument is cancelled and it has been registered under the Registration Act, the court under Section 33/31 of the Specific Relief Act shall send a copy of its decree to the:

• A. Collector
• B. Registering officer, who shall note the cancellation on the copy of the instrument
• C. Advocate General
• D. District Judge

Q18. [Specific Relief] Under Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, an injunction CANNOT be granted to:

• A. Prevent a continuing breach
• B. Restrain a person from instituting or prosecuting proceedings in a court not subordinate to that from which the injunction is sought
• C. Protect a right to property
• D. Prevent a multiplicity of proceedings

Q19. [Specific Relief] Under Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, in a suit for specific performance, the plaintiff may also claim compensation, and the court may award compensation:

• A. Only if it refuses specific performance
• B. In addition to, or in substitution for, specific performance as the justice of the case requires
• C. Never in the same suit
• D. Only against the Government

Q20. [BNS 2023] The defence of accident under BNS requires that the act be done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge, and:

• A. Only in a private place
• B. In the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means with proper care
• C. Only against strangers
• D. Only by public servants

Q21. [BNS 2023] Under BNS, voluntary intoxication is:

• A. A complete defence in all cases
• B. Generally no defence, though it may bear on the specific intent required
• C. A defence only for property offences
• D. An aggravating circumstance always

Q22. [BNS 2023] The right of private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing death of the assailant only when the assault reasonably causes apprehension of:

• A. Simple hurt
• B. Death or grievous hurt, or specified grave offences
• C. Loss of property
• D. Defamation

Q23. [BNS 2023] Constructive liability for the common object of an unlawful assembly requires that the offence be:

• A. Committed by all five members
• B. Committed in prosecution of the common object or such as members knew to be likely
• C. Planned in writing
• D. Committed for gain only

Q24. [BNS 2023] The threshold that separates mere preparation from a punishable attempt is whether the act done is:

• A. Secret
• B. Proximate to and a step in the actual commission of the offence
• C. Motivated by profit
• D. Done in public

Q25. [BNS 2023] Where a person whose death is caused consents to the risk of death and is above eighteen years, causing his death may fall under the exception of:

• A. Private defence
• B. Consent of an adult to the risk of death
• C. Accident
• D. Necessity

Q26. [BNS 2023] A terrorist act, defined to include acts intended to threaten the unity, integrity, security or economic security of India, is now provided for within:

• A. Only special anti-terror statutes
• B. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
• C. The Constitution
• D. The BNSS

Q27. [BNS 2023] Theft under BNS is committed when a person, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of another without consent, moves that property. The dishonest intention here corresponds to intending to cause:

• A. Reasonable apprehension
• B. Wrongful gain to one or wrongful loss to another
• C. Grievous hurt
• D. Criminal trespass

Q28. [BNS 2023] Cheating under BNS requires fraudulently or dishonestly inducing a person deceived to deliver property or to do or omit something which he would not do if not deceived, and which:

• A. Causes no harm at all
• B. Causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property
• C. Benefits the deceived person
• D. Involves only a written contract

Q29. [BNS 2023] A false document for the purposes of forgery is one made dishonestly or fraudulently by, among other means:

• A. Signing one’s own name honestly
• B. Making, signing or executing a document with the intention of causing it to be believed that it was made by a person by whom the maker knows it was not made
• C. Reading a document aloud
• D. Photocopying a genuine document

Q30. [BNS 2023] An assembly of five or more persons becomes an unlawful assembly when the common object of the persons composing it is one of the objects enumerated, such as to:

• A. Attend a lawful meeting
• B. Resist the execution of law or legal process, or to commit criminal force or an offence
• C. Watch a public event
• D. Form a cooperative society

Q31. [BNS 2023] Under the BNS definitions, a person is said to do a thing fraudulently if he does it with intent to defraud, which the courts treat as involving:

• A. Only wrongful gain
• B. Deceit coupled with either an actual injury or a risk of injury to the person deceived or another
• C. A lawful advantage
• D. Mere carelessness

Q32. [BNSS 2023] Among the rights of an arrested person under BNSS is the right to have a relative or friend or nominated person informed of the arrest, and to:

• A. Refuse medical examination
• B. Be informed of the grounds of arrest and, in a bailable offence, of the right to bail
• C. Leave without any bond
• D. Choose the investigating officer

Q33. [BNSS 2023] The maximum period of detention pending investigation before default bail accrues is generally ninety days for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment for a term of:

• A. Not less than three years
• B. Not less than ten years
• C. Any term
• D. Not less than five years

Q34. [BNSS 2023] The essential procedural distinction between summons cases and warrant cases is that a warrant case relates to an offence punishable with:

• A. Fine only
• B. Death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment exceeding two years
• C. Any imprisonment
• D. Community service

Q35. [BNSS 2023] BNSS introduces a timeline requiring the judgment to be pronounced ordinarily within a specified period after conclusion of arguments, that period being:

• A. Thirty days
• B. Forty-five days
• C. Ninety days
• D. Six months

Q36. [BNSS 2023] Proceedings for maintenance may be taken against a person, and enforcement of a maintenance order for failure to pay may include:

• A. Only a warning
• B. Issue of a warrant for levying the amount due and, on default, imprisonment
• C. Cancellation of citizenship
• D. Attachment of the claimant’s property

Q37. [BNSS 2023] BNSS promotes the use of audio-video electronic means, providing that trials, inquiries and proceedings including recording of evidence and even search and seizure may be conducted or documented:

• A. Only on paper
• B. Through audio-video electronic means as prescribed
• C. Only in metropolitan areas
• D. Only with the accused’s consent in every case

Q38. [BNSS 2023] Under BNSS, on the arrest of a person, the police officer shall prepare a memorandum of arrest attested by at least one witness and provide information of the arrest to a nominated person, and where the victim is a woman with a disability, information of a cognizable offence may be recorded:

• A. Only in the police station
• B. At the residence of the informant or a convenient place with assistance of an interpreter or special educator and videographed where practicable
• C. Only by a male officer
• D. After a magistrate’s permission

Q39. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, the opinion of a handwriting expert on a disputed signature falls within the category of:

• A. Direct evidence
• B. Expert opinion
• C. Res gestae
• D. Conclusive proof

Q40. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, the burden of proving a fact especially within the knowledge of a person lies on:

• A. The prosecution always
• B. That person
• C. The court
• D. The witness

Q41. [Evidence/BSA] When a party’s own witness turns hostile, the party may, with the court’s permission, put questions in the nature of:

• A. Leading questions in chief only
• B. Cross-examination to that witness
• C. Re-examination
• D. Refreshing memory

Q42. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, a communication between an advocate and client made in the course of professional employment is:

• A. Freely disclosable
• B. Protected from compelled disclosure by the advocate
• C. Conclusive proof
• D. Public record

Q43. [Evidence/BSA] A confession by one of several accused jointly tried for the same offence, affecting himself and a co-accused, may under the BSA be:

• A. The sole basis of conviction
• B. Taken into consideration against the co-accused as a weak corroborative circumstance
• C. Ignored entirely
• D. Treated as conclusive proof

Q44. [Evidence/BSA] Where a document is thirty years old and produced from proper custody, the court may under the BSA presume that the signature and every part of it:

• A. Are forged
• B. Are in the handwriting of the person by whom it purports to be signed
• C. Are irrelevant
• D. Need fresh proof

Q45. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, the examination of a witness by the party who calls him is called:

• A. Cross-examination
• B. Examination-in-chief
• C. Re-examination
• D. Refreshing memory

Q46. [Evidence/BSA] In criminal proceedings under the BSA, the fact that the accused person has a good character is:

• A. Irrelevant
• B. Relevant
• C. Conclusive proof of innocence
• D. Privileged

Q47. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, the court may presume that an electronic record, digitally signed and produced in accordance with law, is authentic; this is a presumption:

• A. Relating only to oral evidence
• B. As to electronic records
• C. Of conclusive proof of contents
• D. Of good character

Q48. [Constitution] The doctrine that a pre-Constitution law inconsistent with Fundamental Rights is not dead but overshadowed, and revives if the inconsistency is removed, is the doctrine of:

• A. Severability
• B. Eclipse
• C. Pith and substance
• D. Colourable legislation

Q49. [Constitution] In Indra Sawhney v. Union of India, the Supreme Court capped total reservations, as a general rule, at:

• A. 25 per cent
• B. 50 per cent
• C. 60 per cent
• D. 75 per cent

Q50. [Constitution] Article 20(1) prohibits conviction for an offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the act; this bars:

• A. Double jeopardy
• B. Ex post facto criminal laws imposing higher penalty
• C. Self-incrimination
• D. Preventive detention

Q51. [Constitution] Article 30 confers on religious and linguistic minorities the right to:

• A. Vote separately
• B. Establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
• C. Levy taxes
• D. Frame criminal laws

Q52. [Constitution] The writ that questions the legal authority of a person holding a public office is:

• A. Prohibition
• B. Quo warranto
• C. Mandamus
• D. Certiorari

Q53. [Constitution] In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, the Supreme Court propounded that Parliament’s amending power under Article 368 cannot alter the:

• A. Preamble at all
• B. Basic structure of the Constitution
• C. Seventh Schedule
• D. Directive Principles

Q54. [Constitution] Judges of the Supreme Court hold office, under Article 124, until they attain the age of:

• A. 62 years
• B. 65 years
• C. 60 years
• D. 70 years

Q55. [Constitution] The ‘expression person to be appointed as district judge’ under Article 236 includes judges of a city civil court, additional district judge, and:

• A. A munsif only
• B. Any other judge of equal or higher rank, including sessions and additional sessions judge
• C. A notary
• D. A registrar of a company

Q56. [Constitution] A Proclamation of Financial Emergency is provided for under:

• A. Article 352
• B. Article 356
• C. Article 360
• D. Article 365

Q57. [Constitution] The residuary power to legislate on any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent or State List is, under Article 248, vested in:

• A. The States
• B. Parliament
• C. The Governor
• D. The Supreme Court

Q58. [Contract] A proposal may be revoked at any time before:

• A. The proposal is communicated to the offeree
• B. The communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer
• C. The offeree reads the proposal
• D. One week has elapsed

Q59. [Contract] A promise to compensate a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor is:

• A. Void for want of consideration
• B. Enforceable under Section 25(2)
• C. Enforceable only if in writing
• D. A gift

Q60. [Contract] Where the parties to a contract stand in such a relation that one can dominate the will of the other and uses that position to obtain an unfair advantage, the consent is vitiated by:

• A. Coercion
• B. Undue influence
• C. Fraud
• D. Mistake

Q61. [Contract] When consent to an agreement is caused by fraud or misrepresentation, the contract is:

• A. Void ab initio
• B. Voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused
• C. Valid and binding
• D. Illegal

Q62. [Contract] A contract to do or not to do something if some uncertain future event happens is a:

• A. Wagering agreement
• B. Contingent contract
• C. Void agreement
• D. Quasi-contract

Q63. [Contract] Promises which form the consideration for each other are called:

• A. Reciprocal promises
• B. Contingent promises
• C. Void promises
• D. Collateral promises

Q64. [Contract] Under Section 73, compensation is not to be given for:

• A. Loss arising naturally from the breach
• B. Any remote and indirect loss sustained by reason of the breach
• C. Loss the parties knew of when contracting
• D. Loss in the usual course

Q65. [Contract] The liability of the surety, unless otherwise provided by the contract, is:

• A. Co-extensive with that of the principal debtor
• B. Half that of the principal debtor
• C. Secondary and limited
• D. Only after the debtor is insolvent

Q66. [Contract] The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called:

• A. A pledge
• B. A lien
• C. A mortgage
• D. A charge

Q67. [Contract] The agency is terminated, among other modes, by:

• A. The principal revoking his authority or the agent renouncing the business
• B. Only the death of the principal
• C. Only the completion of one transaction
• D. Notice to strangers alone

Q68. [Property] An easement, apart from the dominant heritage, is:

• A. Transferable
• B. Not transferable
• C. Transferable only by will
• D. Transferable by lease

Q69. [Property] The doctrine of election under Section 35 requires a person who takes a benefit under an instrument to:

• A. Reject the whole instrument
• B. Confirm every part of the instrument, including provisions disposing of his own property
• C. Take only the benefit and keep his own property
• D. Pay compensation always

Q70. [Property] The doctrine of part performance under Section 53A protects a transferee who has:

• A. Only signed an agreement
• B. Taken possession in part performance of a written contract and done some act in furtherance thereof
• C. Merely paid an advance
• D. Registered a gift deed

Q71. [Property] In a mortgage by conditional sale, the mortgagee’s remedy in default is by way of:

• A. Sale by the mortgagee
• B. Foreclosure
• C. Suit for the mortgage money only
• D. Delivery of possession

Q72. [Property] Any provision in a mortgage deed that prevents or hampers the mortgagor’s right to redeem is void as a:

• A. Condition subsequent
• B. Clog on the equity of redemption
• C. Contingent interest
• D. Restraint on marriage

Q73. [Property] A lease of immovable property is a transfer of a right to enjoy such property, made for:

• A. A price paid outright as ownership
• B. A certain time or in perpetuity, in consideration of rent or premium
• C. A gift
• D. An exchange

Q74. [Property] An exchange under Section 118 is a transaction in which two persons mutually transfer:

• A. The ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, neither being money only
• B. Money for goods
• C. A lease for rent
• D. A gift for love

Q75. [Property] An actionable claim under Section 3 means a claim to any debt (other than one secured by mortgage or pledge) or to any beneficial interest in movable property not in the claimant’s possession, which:

• A. The civil courts recognise as affording grounds for relief
• B. Is barred by limitation
• C. Requires registration always
• D. Is enforceable only by arbitration

Q76. [Property] Under Section 43, the principle of feeding the estoppel operates where a person fraudulently or erroneously represents authority to transfer and subsequently:

• A. Denies the transfer
• B. Acquires an interest in the property transferred
• C. Registers a fresh deed only
• D. Dies intestate

Q77. [Torts] The rule in Rylands v Fletcher imposes liability that is:

• A. Fault-based only
• B. Strict, subject to recognised exceptions
• C. Absolute with no exceptions
• D. Purely contractual

Q78. [Torts] Under the doctrine of contributory negligence in modern Indian tort law, the claimant’s damages are:

• A. Wholly denied
• B. Apportioned according to fault
• C. Doubled
• D. Unaffected

Q79. [Torts] Which of the following is a recognised defence of inevitable natural forces in tort?

• A. Volenti
• B. Act of God (vis major)
• C. Novus actus
• D. Res judicata

Q80. [Torts] Under the Motor Vehicles Act, ‘no-fault liability’ compensation is payable:

• A. Only on proof of driver’s negligence
• B. Irrespective of any wrongful act or negligence
• C. Only after a criminal conviction
• D. Only to the vehicle owner

Q81. [Commercial] The presumption under Section 139 of the NI Act operates in favour of:

• A. The drawer
• B. The holder of the cheque as to consideration
• C. The bank
• D. The endorser only

Q82. [Commercial] Interim measures by a court in aid of arbitration are provided under:

• A. Section 8
• B. Section 9
• C. Section 16
• D. Section 31

Q83. [Commercial] The corporate insolvency resolution process under the IBC must ordinarily be completed within:

• A. Ninety days
• B. One hundred and eighty days extendable, capped at 330 days
• C. Two years
• D. No fixed limit

Q84. [Commercial] Mutual agency is a defining feature of partnership because each partner is:

• A. Only a creditor
• B. An agent and a principal for the firm’s business
• C. A mere employee
• D. A shareholder

Q85. [Commercial] Under the Companies Act, 2013 a private company is required to have a minimum number of members equal to:

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Seven
• D. Fifty

Q86. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Land revenue administration in Chhattisgarh is governed by the:

• A. CG Rent Control Act
• B. Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 (adopted from MP)
• C. CG Excise Act
• D. CG Panchayat Act

Q87. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Restrictions on transfer of land held by a member of an aboriginal tribe in CG appear in the provision corresponding to:

• A. Section 165/170B of the CG Land Revenue Code
• B. CG Rent Control Act s.12
• C. CG Excise Act
• D. CG Panchayat Act

Q88. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Rent-control and tenant eviction in urban Chhattisgarh are governed by the:

• A. CG Land Revenue Code
• B. Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011
• C. CG Excise Act
• D. CG Panchayat Act

Q89. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The apex revenue authority in Chhattisgarh hearing revenue appeals and revisions is the:

• A. Collector
• B. Board of Revenue at Bilaspur
• C. Tehsildar
• D. Gram Sabha

Q90. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] A large portion of Chhattisgarh is constitutionally classified, empowering the Governor specially, under the:

• A. Sixth Schedule
• B. Fifth Schedule (Scheduled Areas)
• C. Fourth Schedule
• D. Seventh Schedule

Q91. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Gram Sabha empowerment over minor forest produce and land alienation in CG Scheduled Areas flows from:

• A. CG Rent Control Act
• B. PESA, 1996
• C. CG Land Revenue Code alone
• D. CG Excise Act

Q92. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] ‘Diversion’ of land use in Chhattisgarh from agricultural to non-agricultural purpose requires an order of the:

• A. Civil court
• B. Competent revenue authority under the Land Revenue Code
• C. Gram Sabha
• D. Rent Authority

Q93. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The High Court of Chhattisgarh, functional since the State’s creation in 2000, is located at:

• A. Raipur
• B. Bilaspur
• C. Durg
• D. Jagdalpur

Q94. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] A member of an aboriginal tribe in CG may transfer his land to a non-tribal only:

• A. Freely
• B. With the previous sanction of the competent revenue authority
• C. By registration alone
• D. Never in any case

Q95. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The superior heritable-and-transferable class of tenure-holder under the CG Land Revenue Code is the:

• A. Occupancy tenant
• B. Bhumiswami
• C. Government lessee
• D. Shikmi tenant

Q96. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Rural self-government in Chhattisgarh operates under the:

• A. CG Land Revenue Code
• B. Chhattisgarh Panchayat Raj Adhiniyam, 1993
• C. CG Rent Control Act
• D. CG Excise Act

Q97. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Nistar rights of villagers to fuel, fodder and grazing over unoccupied land in CG are recorded in the:

• A. Charge register
• B. Nistar patrak under the Land Revenue Code
• C. Rent register
• D. Excise register

Q98. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Time-bound delivery of notified public services in Chhattisgarh is guaranteed by the:

• A. CG Excise Act
• B. Chhattisgarh Lok Sewa Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2011
• C. CG Rent Control Act
• D. CG Land Revenue Code

Q99. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Partition of a holding among co-Bhumiswamis in Chhattisgarh is effected by the:

• A. Civil court only
• B. Revenue court (Tehsildar/SDO)
• C. Gram Sabha
• D. Rent Authority

Q100. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Restoration of illegally alienated tribal land under s.170B of the CG Land Revenue Code is ordered in favour of the:

• A. Transferee
• B. Original tribal transferor (or heirs)
• C. State only
• D. Gram Panchayat