MP HJS (District Judge) — Prelims Pattern Mock 5 (100 Questions)

Q1. [CPC] Under Order 1 Rule 10(2) CPC, the court may, at any stage of the proceedings, order that the name of any party improperly joined be struck out and that the name of any person who ought to have been joined, or whose presence is necessary to effectually adjudicate the questions involved, be added. Such power may be exercised:

• A. Only on the application of a party
• B. Either upon or without the application of any party
• C. Only before the settlement of issues
• D. Only with the consent of the plaintiff

Q2. [CPC] The proviso to Order 6 Rule 17 CPC restricts amendment of pleadings by providing that no application for amendment shall be allowed after the trial has commenced, unless the court concludes that:

• A. The opposite party consents to the amendment
• B. In spite of due diligence, the party could not have raised the matter before commencement of trial
• C. The amendment does not change the nature of the suit
• D. The court fee has been paid on the amended claim

Q3. [CPC] Under Order 9 Rule 7 CPC, where the court has adjourned the hearing of the suit ex parte and the defendant appears at or before the adjourned hearing and assigns good cause for his previous non-appearance, he may:

• A. Have the ex parte order set aside on such terms as to costs as the court directs
• B. Insist on a de novo trial as of right
• C. Be permitted only after depositing the decretal amount
• D. Only cross-examine witnesses already examined

Q4. [CPC] Under Order 13 Rule 1 CPC (as amended), the parties are required to produce their documentary evidence in original:

• A. At the first hearing of the suit
• B. Before or at the settlement of issues
• C. Only after the plaintiff’s evidence is closed
• D. At the stage of final arguments

Q5. [CPC] Under Order 20 Rule 18(2) CPC, where the decree relates to any immovable property not assessed to revenue, or to movable property, and the partition cannot be conveniently made without further inquiry, the court:

• A. Must dismiss the partition suit
• B. May pass a preliminary decree declaring rights and giving directions for inquiry
• C. Shall refer the matter to arbitration
• D. Shall order sale of the entire property

Q6. [CPC] An application to set aside a sale of immovable property in execution on the ground of a material irregularity or fraud in publishing or conducting it is made under Order 21 Rule 90 CPC. Such sale shall not be set aside unless the applicant proves that:

• A. The price was inadequate
• B. He has sustained substantial injury by reason of such irregularity or fraud
• C. A higher bid was available
• D. The sale was held on a public holiday

Q7. [CPC] Under Order 34 Rule 5 CPC, in a suit for sale on a mortgage, if the defendant pays into court the amount due on or before the day fixed by the preliminary decree, the court shall pass a final decree:

• A. Ordering sale of the mortgaged property
• B. Directing that the mortgaged property be freed and discharged from the mortgage and re-transferred to the mortgagor
• C. For foreclosure of the equity of redemption
• D. Awarding mesne profits to the mortgagee

Q8. [CPC] Under Section 35A CPC, compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences may be awarded, but the amount of such compensatory costs shall not exceed:

• A. Three thousand rupees or the pecuniary limits of the court, whichever is less
• B. Ten thousand rupees in every case
• C. The value of the subject-matter
• D. Twice the court fee paid

Q9. [CPC] Under Section 149 CPC, where the whole or any part of the fee prescribed for any document has not been paid, the court may, in its discretion, at any stage, allow the person to pay the deficit court fee, and upon such payment the document shall:

• A. Be treated as never having been filed
• B. Have the same force and effect as if such fee had been paid in the first instance
• C. Be returned for fresh presentation
• D. Require condonation of delay under Section 5 Limitation Act

Q10. [CPC] Section 20 CPC provides a residuary rule of territorial jurisdiction, allowing a suit to be instituted, inter alia, in a court within whose local limits:

• A. The plaintiff resides in every case
• B. The cause of action, wholly or in part, arises
• C. The subject-matter is registered
• D. Any witness resides

Q11. [CPC] Under Order 8 Rule 1 CPC (as amended), the defendant shall, within thirty days from the date of service of summons, present a written statement; the proviso permits the court to extend this time, on recording reasons, up to:

• A. A further period of fifteen days only
• B. A day not later than ninety days from the date of service of summons
• C. One hundred and twenty days from the date of service
• D. No maximum limit

Q12. [Limitation] Under Section 12(1) of the Limitation Act, 1963, in computing the period of limitation for any suit, appeal or application, the day from which such period is to be reckoned shall be:

• A. Included
• B. Excluded
• C. Counted as a half day
• D. Ignored only in appeals

Q13. [Limitation] Section 9 of the Limitation Act, 1963, embodies the principle that where once time has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make an application:

• A. Stops it
• B. Extends it by the period of disability
• C. Revives the cause of action
• D. Renders the claim fresh

Q14. [Limitation] Under Section 22 of the Limitation Act, 1963, in the case of a continuing breach of contract or a continuing tort, a fresh period of limitation begins to run:

• A. Only once, from the first breach
• B. At every moment of the time during which the breach or the tort continues
• C. From the date of the last payment
• D. From the date of notice

Q15. [Specific Relief] Under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a person dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law may recover possession by suit, provided the suit is brought within:

• A. One year from the date of dispossession
• B. Six months from the date of dispossession
• C. Three years from the date of dispossession
• D. Twelve years from the date of dispossession

Q16. [Specific Relief] Under Section 11(1) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, except as otherwise provided, specific performance of a contract shall be enforced when the act agreed to be done is in the performance, wholly or partly, of:

• A. A commercial obligation
• B. A trust
• C. A personal service contract
• D. A wagering agreement

Q17. [Specific Relief] Under Section 16(a) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, specific performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person who:

• A. Has obtained substituted performance
• B. Would not be entitled to recover compensation for its breach
• C. Is a stranger to the contract
• D. Has assigned his rights

Q18. [Specific Relief] Under Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, any person entitled to any legal character, or to any right as to any property, may institute a suit against any person denying his title, and the court may make a declaration; but the proviso bars the court from making any such declaration where the plaintiff, being able to seek further relief than a mere declaration of title:

• A. Also claims damages
• B. Omits to do so
• C. Joins another defendant
• D. Fails to pay ad valorem court fee

Q19. [Specific Relief] Under Section 38(3) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a perpetual injunction may be granted to prevent the breach of an obligation existing in favour of the applicant, and where the defendant invades or threatens to invade the plaintiff’s right to, or enjoyment of, property, the court may grant such injunction where, inter alia:

• A. The invasion is trivial
• B. The defendant is a trustee of the property for the plaintiff
• C. Damages afford an adequate relief
• D. The plaintiff has acquiesced

Q20. [BNS 2023] Under BNS, where an abettor is present when an act is committed in consequence of the abetment, he is deemed to have committed which offence

• A. The abetment only
• B. The act itself
• C. A distinct minor offence
• D. No offence unless he participates physically

Q21. [BNS 2023] An act is done ‘voluntarily’ under BNS when a person causes it by means whereby he intended to cause it, or by means which at the time he

• A. Knew or had reason to believe to be likely to cause it
• B. Merely hoped would cause it
• C. Was reckless about generally
• D. Had no knowledge of

Q22. [BNS 2023] Culpable homicide is not murder where the offender, in exercise in good faith of the right of private defence, exceeds the power given and causes death

• A. With premeditation for the purpose of killing
• B. Without premeditation and without intention of doing more harm than necessary
• C. After the threat has ended
• D. For revenge

Q23. [BNS 2023] Where a life-convict attempts to commit murder and hurt is caused thereby, BNS permits the court to award

• A. Only imprisonment for life
• B. The death penalty
• C. A fine only
• D. Community service

Q24. [BNS 2023] Voluntarily causing hurt to extort property, or to constrain to an illegal act, is a distinct BNS offence known as

• A. Simple hurt
• B. Hurt to extort
• C. Assault
• D. Criminal force

Q25. [BNS 2023] Kidnapping from India under BNS means conveying a person beyond the limits of India

• A. With his consent
• B. Without the consent of that person or a person lawfully authorised to consent
• C. At night only
• D. For ransom only

Q26. [BNS 2023] Under BNS, an assembly which was not unlawful when it assembled may subsequently become an unlawful assembly if

• A. It remains peaceful
• B. Its members adopt a common object rendering it unlawful
• C. A member leaves
• D. It disperses

Q27. [BNS 2023] ‘Extortion’ under BNS is intentionally putting a person in fear of injury and thereby dishonestly inducing him to deliver property or valuable security, distinguishing it from theft because

• A. Property is taken without consent
• B. Consent is obtained by putting in fear
• C. No property is involved
• D. It requires five persons

Q28. [BNS 2023] Criminal breach of trust by a public servant, banker, merchant or agent is under BNS

• A. Treated identically to ordinary breach of trust
• B. An aggravated form attracting higher punishment
• C. Not an offence
• D. Only a departmental matter

Q29. [BNS 2023] ‘Mischief’ under BNS is causing wrongful loss or damage by destroying property or diminishing its value or utility, and mischief causing damage to the amount of a prescribed sum is

• A. Not punishable
• B. An aggravated form
• C. Extortion
• D. Criminal trespass

Q30. [BNS 2023] Under the exceptions to defamation in BNS, imputing anything true concerning any person is not defamation if it is

• A. Made in private
• B. For the public good that it be made or published
• C. Made to the person concerned
• D. Anonymous

Q31. [BNS 2023] Under BNS, murder committed by a group of five or more persons acting on grounds of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief is

• A. Ordinary murder
• B. Punishable as murder with special provision for mob lynching
• C. Only rioting
• D. Culpable homicide

Q32. [BNSS 2023] Under BNSS, information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence given orally to the officer in charge of a police station must be

• A. Acted on without any writing
• B. Reduced to writing and read over to the informant
• C. Referred to a Magistrate first
• D. Verified before recording

Q33. [BNSS 2023] For a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment up to seven years, BNSS incorporates the Arnesh Kumar safeguard requiring the officer, before arrest, to

• A. Obtain a Magistrate’s warrant
• B. Record reasons and issue a notice of appearance in appropriate cases
• C. Inform the media
• D. Seek the victim’s consent

Q34. [BNSS 2023] The processes to compel appearance under BNSS, in ascending order of coercion, are

• A. Warrant, summons, proclamation, attachment
• B. Summons, warrant, proclamation and attachment of property
• C. Attachment, proclamation, warrant, summons
• D. Proclamation, summons, warrant, attachment

Q35. [BNSS 2023] Under BNSS, the maximum-detention undertrial release does not apply to a person accused of an offence punishable with

• A. Imprisonment up to three years
• B. Death or life imprisonment, or where proceedings are pending in more than one offence
• C. Fine only
• D. Two years

Q36. [BNSS 2023] Cognizance of an offence by a Magistrate under BNSS may be taken upon a police report, upon a complaint, or upon

• A. A rumour
• B. Information received from any person other than a police officer, or the Magistrate’s own knowledge
• C. An anonymous letter alone
• D. A newspaper report alone

Q37. [BNSS 2023] The general rule under BNSS is that for every distinct offence there shall be a separate charge, subject to exceptions permitting joinder where offences

• A. Are wholly unconnected
• B. Are of the same kind committed within a year, or form part of the same transaction
• C. Are triable by different courts
• D. Involve different accused

Q38. [BNSS 2023] Where a person is convicted at one trial of two or more offences, the court under BNSS may order the sentences to run

• A. Only consecutively
• B. Concurrently or consecutively, and in certain cases direct concurrent running
• C. Only concurrently
• D. Only as a single sentence

Q39. [Evidence/BSA] Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023, facts which though not in issue are so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction are relevant. This principle is commonly known as

• A. Res gestae
• B. Res judicata
• C. Res integra
• D. Res nullius

Q40. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, an admission is a statement, oral, documentary or in electronic form, which suggests any inference as to a fact in issue or relevant fact, and which is made by

• A. Only the accused
• B. Persons and in circumstances specified by the statute
• C. Any bystander
• D. Only a party’s advocate

Q41. [Evidence/BSA] A retracted confession, under settled principle applied to the BSA, can form the basis of conviction

• A. In no circumstance
• B. Only if corroborated in material particulars
• C. Always by itself
• D. Only if made to police

Q42. [Evidence/BSA] A dying declaration recorded by a Magistrate stands on a higher footing, yet a declaration to any competent person is admissible provided

• A. It is on oath
• B. Two doctors certify it
• C. The declarant was in a fit mental condition to make it
• D. It is video-recorded

Q43. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, secondary evidence of the contents of a document is admissible when the original

• A. Is with the party seeking to prove it
• B. Is shown or appears to be in possession of the adverse party who does not produce it after notice
• C. Has never existed
• D. Is a public document only

Q44. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, a certificate accompanying an electronic record for its admissibility must be signed by

• A. Only the investigating officer
• B. The person in charge of the computer or communication device and an expert, as prescribed
• C. Any witness
• D. The complainant alone

Q45. [Evidence/BSA] In a prosecution for dowry death, where a woman dies within seven years of marriage and was subjected to cruelty for dowry soon before death, the court

• A. Must acquit
• B. Requires an eyewitness
• C. May ignore the cruelty
• D. Shall presume the accused caused the dowry death

Q46. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, in civil cases the husband or wife of a party is a competent witness, and communications during marriage are protected such that a spouse

• A. Can freely disclose them
• B. Can never be a witness
• C. Must always disclose them
• D. Shall not be compelled to disclose them without consent, except in suits between the spouses or prosecution of one for a crime against the other

Q47. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, an accomplice is a competent witness against an accused, and a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice; yet the settled rule of prudence requires

• A. Corroboration in material particulars connecting the accused with the crime
• B. No corroboration at all
• C. A second accomplice
• D. A confession

Q48. [Constitution] The Preamble, as held after Kesavananda Bharati, is

• A. Not part of the Constitution
• B. A part of the Constitution and amendable subject to the basic structure
• C. Wholly unamendable
• D. Merely a preface with no legal effect

Q49. [Constitution] The proposition that equality under Article 14 is antithetic to arbitrariness, so that any arbitrary State action violates Article 14, flows principally from

• A. Gopalan
• B. Shankari Prasad
• C. Champakam Dorairajan
• D. E.P. Royappa and Maneka Gandhi

Q50. [Constitution] Under Article 20(1), no person shall be convicted of an offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the act, nor subjected to a penalty greater than that in force then. This embodies protection against

• A. Double jeopardy
• B. Preventive detention
• C. Self-incrimination
• D. Ex post facto criminal laws

Q51. [Constitution] The protections of Article 22(1) and 22(2), such as the right to be informed of grounds and to consult a legal practitioner, do not apply to

• A. A person arrested under a law providing for preventive detention or an enemy alien
• B. Any arrested person
• C. Persons in judicial custody
• D. Persons on bail

Q52. [Constitution] The power of the High Court to issue writs under Article 226 is, in territorial reach,

• A. Confined to fundamental rights
• B. All-India in every case
• C. Exercisable in relation to territories within its jurisdiction or where the cause of action wholly or in part arises
• D. Limited to State Government matters

Q53. [Constitution] On the effect of an ordinance that lapses, the Supreme Court in Krishna Kumar Singh held that

• A. All acts done under it survive automatically
• B. A lapsed ordinance revives on re-promulgation
• C. The theory of enduring rights is not absolute and the effect of a lapsed ordinance depends on irreversibility and public interest
• D. Ordinances can never create rights

Q54. [Constitution] Under Article 235, control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including posting, promotion and grant of leave, is vested in the

• A. Governor
• B. State Government
• C. High Court
• D. District Collector

Q55. [Constitution] A Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352, after the 44th Amendment, can be issued only on the ground of

• A. Failure of constitutional machinery
• B. Internal disturbance
• C. Financial instability
• D. War, external aggression or armed rebellion

Q56. [Constitution] In I.R. Coelho, the Supreme Court held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 are

• A. Wholly immune from challenge
• B. Open to challenge on the touchstone of the basic structure
• C. Automatically void
• D. Beyond the scope of Article 32

Q57. [Constitution] Under Article 254(2), a State law repugnant to a Union law on a Concurrent subject may prevail in that State if it has been reserved for and received the assent of the

• A. Governor
• B. President
• C. Chief Justice
• D. Rajya Sabha

Q58. [Contract] Under the rule in Entores Ltd v Miles Far East Corporation, applied in India in Bhagwandas Kedia v Girdharilal, where a contract is made by instantaneous communication such as telephone, the contract is complete at the place where:

• A. The acceptance is spoken into the phone
• B. The acceptance is heard and received by the offeror
• C. The offer was first posted
• D. The parties happen to be domiciled

Q59. [Contract] Where property is transferred to a trustee for the benefit of a third person, that beneficiary may enforce the covenant despite not being a party, on the basis of:

• A. Novation
• B. A constructive trust or beneficiary exception to privity
• C. Ratification
• D. Quantum meruit

Q60. [Contract] A contract for the supply of necessaries to a minor is enforceable against the minor’s estate under Section 68; the minor’s personal liability, however, is:

• A. Full and personal
• B. Absent; only his property is liable to reimburse
• C. Limited to half the price
• D. Dependent on ratification

Q61. [Contract] A bilateral mistake of both parties as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement renders the agreement, under Section 20:

• A. Voidable at the option of either party
• B. Void
• C. Valid
• D. Enforceable after rectification

Q62. [Contract] An agreement in restraint of trade is void under Section 27, but a seller of the goodwill of a business may validly agree to refrain from carrying on a similar business:

• A. Anywhere in India for life
• B. Within specified local limits so long as the limits appear reasonable to the court
• C. Only for one year
• D. Only if a penalty is stipulated

Q63. [Contract] Under Section 36, agreements contingent on an impossible event are:

• A. Voidable whether or not the impossibility was known
• B. Void whether or not the impossibility is known to the parties at the time of agreement
• C. Valid if the impossibility was unknown
• D. Enforceable on best efforts

Q64. [Contract] When two or more persons make a joint promise, in the absence of contrary intention, Section 42 requires that during their joint lives:

• A. Any one of them must fulfil the promise
• B. All must jointly fulfil the promise
• C. The eldest must fulfil the promise
• D. The promise lapses

Q65. [Contract] Under Section 51, when a contract consists of reciprocal promises to be simultaneously performed, no promisor need perform his promise unless:

• A. The court so directs
• B. The promisee is ready and willing to perform his reciprocal promise
• C. A deposit is paid
• D. The time has wholly expired

Q66. [Contract] Where one party, before the time for performance, repudiates the contract, the other party may treat this anticipatory breach as an immediate breach and sue at once; alternatively he may:

• A. Only sue after the due date
• B. Keep the contract alive and await the date of performance
• C. Claim only nominal damages
• D. Rescind without notice and claim nothing

Q67. [Contract] Under Section 128, the liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor unless:

• A. The creditor consents
• B. It is otherwise provided by the contract
• C. The debt exceeds a fixed sum
• D. The surety is a minor

Q68. [Property] Under Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, the expression ‘attached to the earth’ includes things rooted in the earth, things imbedded in the earth, and things:

• A. Merely resting on the earth by their own weight
• B. Attached to what is so imbedded for the permanent beneficial enjoyment of that to which it is attached
• C. Movable by ordinary means
• D. Standing timber cut for sale

Q69. [Property] Under Section 10, a condition absolutely restraining the transferee from parting with his interest in the property is void, except in the case of:

• A. Any sale
• B. A lease where the condition is for the benefit of the lessor, or a transfer to a married woman not being a Hindu, Muhammadan or Buddhist
• C. A gift to a stranger
• D. A mortgage

Q70. [Property] Under Section 20, where an interest is created for the benefit of an unborn person, that person acquires upon his birth a vested interest, although he may not be entitled to enjoyment:

• A. At all
• B. Immediately on his birth
• C. Only on the death of the prior interest-holder
• D. Until he attains majority by law

Q71. [Property] Under Section 35, the doctrine of election requires that a person who takes a benefit under an instrument must also:

• A. Pay for the benefit
• B. Bear a burden or confirm the whole instrument, electing against retaining the benefit while defeating another part
• C. Register the instrument
• D. Renounce all rights

Q72. [Property] Under Section 51, where a transferee in good faith believing himself absolutely entitled makes improvements on the property, and is subsequently evicted by a person having a better title, he is entitled to:

• A. Retain the property
• B. Compensation for the improvements or to have the value paid, or to purchase at the evictor’s option
• C. Double the cost
• D. Nothing

Q73. [Property] Under Section 54, a contract for the sale of immovable property is a contract that a sale shall take place on terms settled between the parties, and such a contract:

• A. Passes title at once
• B. Does not, of itself, create any interest in or charge on such property
• C. Amounts to a mortgage
• D. Requires no writing at all

Q74. [Property] Under Section 61, a mortgagor who has executed two or more mortgages in favour of the same mortgagee is, in the absence of a contrary contract, entitled to:

• A. Redeem only all together
• B. Redeem any one such mortgage separately
• C. Redeem none until all mature
• D. Foreclose the mortgagee

Q75. [Property] Under Section 100, where immovable property of one person is by act of parties or operation of law made security for payment of money to another and the transaction does not amount to a mortgage, the latter is said to have:

• A. A lien
• B. A charge on the property
• C. A lease
• D. An easement

Q76. [Property] Under Section 116, if a lessee remains in possession after the determination of the lease and the lessor accepts rent or otherwise assents to his continuing, the lease is, in the absence of an agreement to the contrary, renewed as a lease:

• A. For the same original term
• B. From year to year, or month to month, according to the purpose
• C. Permanent
• D. At will only

Q77. [Torts] For the defence of volenti non fit injuria to succeed, the defendant must show that the plaintiff had knowledge of the risk and further

• A. merely became aware of the danger
• B. voluntarily agreed to bear the legal risk
• C. was negligent himself
• D. suffered no actual harm

Q78. [Torts] An employer is generally NOT vicariously liable for the torts of an independent contractor except where

• A. the work is trivial
• B. a non-delegable duty or strict liability is involved
• C. the contractor is paid a lump sum
• D. the contractor uses his own tools

Q79. [Torts] A private nuisance requires proof of

• A. interference with a right common to the public
• B. substantial and unreasonable interference with use or enjoyment of land
• C. a criminal act
• D. physical trespass in every case

Q80. [Torts] The concealed or secondary defamatory meaning of otherwise innocent words is known as

• A. innuendo
• B. justification
• C. privilege
• D. fair comment

Q81. [Commercial] A cheque is a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and payable

• A. on demand only
• B. at a future date
• C. after acceptance
• D. after notice

Q82. [Commercial] Where a cheque is issued by a company, the person in charge of and responsible for the conduct of its business is made liable under

• A. Section 138
• B. Section 140
• C. Section 141
• D. Section 142

Q83. [Commercial] The competence of an arbitral tribunal to rule on its own jurisdiction is embodied in

• A. Section 16 (kompetenz-kompetenz)
• B. Section 11
• C. Section 31
• D. Section 37

Q84. [Commercial] The moratorium prohibiting suits and enforcement against the corporate debtor operates under

• A. Section 12
• B. Section 14
• C. Section 31
• D. Section 53

Q85. [Commercial] The doctrine that acts beyond the objects clause of the memorandum are void and cannot be ratified is

• A. indoor management
• B. constructive notice
• C. ultra vires
• D. estoppel

Q86. [MP Local Law] Disputes arising out of works contracts to which the State of MP is a party are adjudicated by a special tribunal constituted under the:

• A. MP Land Revenue Code
• B. MP Madhyastham Adhikaran Adhiniyam, 1983
• C. MP Accommodation Control Act
• D. Arbitration Act, 1996 only

Q87. [MP Local Law] Regulation of urban land use and town planning schemes in MP is governed by the:

• A. MP Excise Act
• B. MP Nagar Tatha Gram Nivesh Adhiniyam, 1973
• C. MP Land Revenue Code
• D. MP Rent Act

Q88. [MP Local Law] Under the MP Accommodation Control Act, 1961, eviction of a tenant for sub-letting the whole premises without consent is available on the ground of:

• A. Bona fide need
• B. Unauthorised sub-letting
• C. Rent revision
• D. Change of user only with consent

Q89. [MP Local Law] Administration of public religious and charitable endowments in MP is regulated by the:

• A. MP Land Revenue Code
• B. MP Public Trusts Act, 1951
• C. MP Excise Act
• D. MP Rent Act

Q90. [MP Local Law] The revenue officer in MP who maintains and supervises the district land records establishment is the:

• A. Naib-Tehsildar
• B. Superintendent of Land Records
• C. Patwari
• D. Kotwar

Q91. [MP Local Law] In MP, restoration of land of a member of an aboriginal tribe that was transferred to a non-tribal without permission is directed under Section 170B of the Code in favour of the:

• A. Transferee
• B. Tribal transferor (or heirs)
• C. State only
• D. Gram Panchayat

Q92. [MP Local Law] ‘Batai’ under MP land law refers to a system of:

• A. Fixed cash rent
• B. Crop-sharing cultivation
• C. Mortgage
• D. Sale

Q93. [MP Local Law] A revenue appeal from an order of the Sub-Divisional Officer in MP ordinarily lies to the:

• A. High Court
• B. Collector
• C. Board of Revenue directly
• D. Commissioner directly

Q94. [MP Local Law] The MP Land Revenue Code provides for allotment of unoccupied Government land through a document called a:

• A. Decree
• B. Patta (lease/grant)
• C. Charge
• D. Plaint

Q95. [MP Local Law] Cooperative societies in Madhya Pradesh, including their dispute resolution by the Registrar, are governed by the:

• A. MP Rent Act
• B. MP Cooperative Societies Act, 1960
• C. MP Excise Act
• D. Land Revenue Code

Q96. [MP Local Law] Fixation of ceiling and declaration of surplus agricultural land in MP is adjudicated by the:

• A. Civil Court
• B. Competent authority under the MP Ceiling on Agricultural Holdings Act
• C. Rent Authority
• D. Gram Sabha

Q97. [MP Local Law] Excise offences relating to illicit liquor in MP are dealt with under the:

• A. MP Rent Act
• B. MP Excise Act, 1915
• C. Land Revenue Code
• D. Nagar Nivesh Adhiniyam

Q98. [MP Local Law] In MP, a rural court for petty local disputes at the panchayat level functioning under the Panchayat law is the:

• A. Board of Revenue
• B. Gram Nyayalaya / Nyaya Panchayat mechanism
• C. Rent Tribunal
• D. Consumer Forum

Q99. [MP Local Law] Unauthorised diversion of agricultural land in MP without the revenue authority’s permission attracts a:

• A. Decree of specific performance
• B. Penalty and liability to restoration of position
• C. Bail bond
• D. Injunction only

Q100. [MP Local Law] The right of a citizen of MP to receive notified services within a fixed time, failing which a penalty lies against the defaulting officer, is under the:

• A. MP Excise Act
• B. MP Lok Sewaon Ke Pradan Ki Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2010
• C. MP Public Trusts Act
• D. Land Revenue Code