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Daily MCQ Paper — 12 April 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 12 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. The doctrine of 'reasonable classification' under Article 14 was elaborated in
    1. State of West Bengal v Anwar Ali Sarkar 1952
    2. A K Gopalan v State of Madras 1950
    3. Maneka Gandhi v UoI 1978
    4. Indra Sawhney v UoI 1992
  2. Q2. Article 14 of the Constitution embodies
    1. Equality before law and equal protection of laws
    2. Right to life
    3. Right to freedom of speech
    4. Right against exploitation
  3. Q3. Article 21A (Right to Education) was inserted by
    1. 86th Amendment 2002
    2. 73rd Amendment 1992
    3. 42nd Amendment 1976
    4. 44th Amendment 1978
  4. Q4. The writ of 'quo warranto' is issued to
    1. Question authority of a person holding public office
    2. Quash a judicial order
    3. Test detention
    4. Compel public duty
  5. Q5. The basic structure doctrine was first propounded in
    1. Golaknath v State of Punjab 1967
    2. Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala 1973
    3. Minerva Mills v UoI 1980
    4. Indira Gandhi v Raj Narain 1975
  6. Q6. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court can issue writs for
    1. Enforcement of fundamental rights only
    2. Any legal right
    3. Statutory rights
    4. Both fundamental and constitutional rights
  7. Q7. The directive principle in Article 44 deals with
    1. Uniform Civil Code
    2. Free legal aid
    3. Promotion of cottage industries
    4. Living wage
  8. Q8. The 9th Schedule of the Constitution, post I R Coelho v State of Tamil Nadu (2007), is
    1. Beyond judicial review
    2. Subject to basic structure review if added after 24 April 1973
    3. Wholly justiciable
    4. Repealed
  9. Q9. A writ of habeas corpus is issued to
    1. Test legality of detention
    2. Compel performance of public duty
    3. Quash an order
    4. Restrain a public officer from acting
  10. Q10. Article 226 (writs by High Courts) is wider than Article 32 because
    1. It covers fundamental rights and any other legal right
    2. It is available only against the State
    3. It can be invoked only after exhausting alternative remedies
    4. It is non-justiciable
  11. Q11. The judgment in Laxmi v Union of India (2014) is associated with
    1. Acid attack regulation, sale of acids and victim compensation
    2. Capital punishment
    3. Bail jurisprudence
    4. Sedition
  12. Q12. Section 76 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 deals with
    1. Acid attack causing grievous hurt
    2. Sexual harassment
    3. Causing miscarriage
    4. Theft
  13. Q13. The IPC equivalent of BNS s.76 (acid attack) was inserted by
    1. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013 — IPC s.326A and 326B
    2. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2018
    3. IPC original 1860
    4. BNS 2023 only — no IPC counterpart
  14. Q14. Section 79 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita criminalises
    1. Acid attack
    2. Word, gesture or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman
    3. Theft
    4. House-trespass
  15. Q15. Stalking, post 2013 amendment, was made a specific offence under
    1. IPC s.354D / now BNS s.78
    2. IPC s.376
    3. IPC s.498A
    4. IPC s.509
  16. Q16. Voyeurism, made a specific offence after the 2013 amendment, is now under
    1. BNS s.77
    2. BNS s.79
    3. IPC s.354A
    4. IPC s.354B
  17. Q17. Section 326A IPC (now BNS s.76) prescribes a minimum punishment of
    1. 5 years RI extendable to 10
    2. 7 years RI extendable to life
    3. 10 years RI extendable to life
    4. 3 years RI
  18. Q18. The POSH Act (Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act) was enacted in
    1. 2013
    2. 2015
    3. 2017
    4. 2005
  19. Q19. Under the POSH Act 2013, every employer with how many employees must constitute an Internal Committee
    1. 5 or more
    2. 10 or more
    3. 20 or more
    4. 50 or more
  20. Q20. Vishaka v State of Rajasthan (1997) laid down guidelines on
    1. Sexual harassment at workplace
    2. Custodial deaths
    3. Acid attack
    4. Death penalty
  21. Q21. Section 41 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (now BNSS s.35) deals with
    1. When police may arrest without warrant
    2. Bail
    3. Confessions
    4. Investigation timeline
  22. Q22. Section 41A CrPC (now BNSS s.35(7)/s.36) provides for
    1. Notice of appearance before police instead of arrest in offences punishable up to 7 years
    2. Anticipatory bail
    3. Compulsory production before magistrate
    4. Recording of confessions
  23. Q23. The 11 guidelines on arrest, including memorandum of arrest and intimation to next of kin, were laid down in
    1. D K Basu v State of West Bengal 1997
    2. Joginder Kumar v State of UP 1994
    3. Arnesh Kumar v State of Bihar 2014
    4. Nandini Satpathy v P L Dani 1978
  24. Q24. Under BNSS, an arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within
    1. 24 hours excluding journey time
    2. 48 hours
    3. 72 hours
    4. 15 days
  25. Q25. Section 167 CrPC / BNSS s.187 prescribes default bail entitlement after
    1. 60 days for offences up to 10 years; 90 days for graver offences
    2. 15 days regardless
    3. 24 hours
    4. One year
  26. Q26. Arnesh Kumar v State of Bihar (2014) is the landmark on
    1. Misuse of arrest powers under s.498A IPC and s.41 CrPC checklist
    2. Custodial torture
    3. Death penalty
    4. Bail
  27. Q27. Anticipatory bail under s.438 CrPC / BNSS s.482 was upheld as a fundamental safeguard in
    1. Sushila Aggarwal v State (NCT of Delhi) 2020
    2. Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v State of Punjab 1980
    3. Both A and B
    4. Hussainara Khatoon v State of Bihar 1979
  28. Q28. Section 100 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) 2023, like s.79 IEA 1872, deals with
    1. Presumption as to genuineness of certified copies
    2. Confessions
    3. Hearsay
    4. Estoppel
  29. Q29. Under BSA s.105 (corresponds to IEA s.84), the court shall presume
    1. Genuineness of every published Act of Parliament or State Legislature
    2. Marriage
    3. Death
    4. Confession voluntarily made
  30. Q30. Under BSA s.114 (corresponds to IEA s.107/108), if a person has not been heard of for ___ years, he is presumed dead
    1. 5
    2. 7
    3. 10
    4. 12
  31. Q31. Presumption of marriage upon long cohabitation (50+ years where parties lived as husband and wife) is recognised under
    1. BSA s.116 (corresponds to IEA s.114)
    2. BSA s.100
    3. IEA s.45
    4. BSA s.50
  32. Q32. Under BSA, a foreign judgment's genuineness is presumed under
    1. S.103 (corresponds to IEA s.86)
    2. S.100
    3. S.114
    4. S.45
  33. Q33. Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act provides for
    1. Damages for breach of contract
    2. Specific performance
    3. Quantum meruit
    4. Liquidated damages only
  34. Q34. A minor's agreement under Indian law is
    1. Voidable at the option of the minor
    2. Void ab initio (no contract from inception) — Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose 1903
    3. Valid if for necessaries
    4. Voidable at the option of the major
  35. Q35. The Hadley v Baxendale rule on remoteness of damages corresponds to which provision
    1. Section 73 ICA
    2. Section 74 ICA
    3. Section 56 ICA
    4. Section 65 ICA
  36. Q36. Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 makes an agreement enforceable as a contract if
    1. It is by free consent of competent parties for lawful consideration and lawful object, not declared void
    2. It is in writing
    3. It is registered
    4. It involves money
  37. Q37. Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act deals with
    1. Frustration / impossibility of performance
    2. Free consent
    3. Capacity
    4. Consideration
  38. Q38. Volenti non fit injuria means
    1. Voluntarily assumed risk negates injury — defence in tort
    2. Negligence per se
    3. Damage without legal injury
    4. Strict liability
  39. Q39. The doctrine of absolute liability (no exceptions) in India was laid down in
    1. M C Mehta v Union of India 1987 (Oleum gas leak)
    2. Donoghue v Stevenson 1932
    3. Rylands v Fletcher 1868
    4. Bhopal gas case 1989
  40. Q40. The rule in Rylands v Fletcher (1868) imposes
    1. Strict liability for escape of dangerous things from non-natural use of land
    2. Fault-based liability
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Absolute liability
  41. Q41. Vicarious liability is based on the maxim
    1. Qui facit per alium facit per se
    2. Volenti non fit injuria
    3. Res ipsa loquitur
    4. Damnum sine injuria
  42. Q42. Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 lists
    1. Conditions for a valid Hindu marriage
    2. Grounds of divorce
    3. Maintenance
    4. Adoption
  43. Q43. Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 provides that
    1. A Hindu marriage may be solemnised in accordance with customary rites and ceremonies of either party; saptapadi where applicable becomes binding on the seventh step
    2. Marriage requires registration to be valid
    3. Marriage may be by oral declaration only
    4. Marriage requires presence of priest only
  44. Q44. Bhaurao Shankar Lokhande v State of Maharashtra (1965) held that
    1. For a valid Hindu marriage, essential ceremonies (saptapadi where customary) must be performed; mere exchange of garlands is insufficient for s.494 IPC bigamy
    2. Hindu marriage need not be ceremonial
    3. Bigamy is non-cognizable
    4. Saptapadi is optional
  45. Q45. Saroj Rani v Sudarshan Kumar Chadha (1984) upheld
    1. Constitutional validity of restitution of conjugal rights under s.9 HMA
    2. Triple talaq
    3. Adoption by women
    4. Mutual divorce
  46. Q46. The Specific Relief Act 1963 was substantially amended in
    1. 2018, making specific performance the rule rather than discretion
    2. 2008
    3. 1991
    4. 2002
  47. Q47. Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 lists
    1. Properties that cannot be transferred (e.g., spes successionis)
    2. Mortgages
    3. Sale
    4. Lease
  48. Q48. The doctrine of part performance is found in
    1. Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act 1882
    2. Section 53 TPA
    3. Section 54 TPA
    4. Section 6 SRA
  49. Q49. The current Chief Justice of India (as of May 2025) is
    1. Justice D Y Chandrachud
    2. Justice Sanjiv Khanna
    3. Justice U U Lalit
    4. Justice N V Ramana
  50. Q50. The seat of the Permanent Court of Arbitration is at
    1. The Hague, Netherlands
    2. Geneva, Switzerland
    3. New York, USA
    4. Vienna, Austria

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