Daily MCQ Paper — 13 April 2026

Daily MCQ Paper — 13 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

1. Q1. Education was moved to the Concurrent List by the
   1. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
   2. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
   3. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
   4. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
2. Q2. Public order and Police are entries in the
   1. Union List
   2. State List
   3. Concurrent List
   4. Residuary powers
3. Q3. The Tenth Schedule was added by the
   1. 42nd Amendment
   2. 44th Amendment
   3. 52nd Amendment
   4. 61st Amendment
4. Q4. The Twelfth Schedule contains how many subjects for Municipalities
   1. 12
   2. 15
   3. 18
   4. 21
5. Q5. Kihoto Hollohan v Zachillhu (1992) struck down which paragraph of the Tenth Schedule
   1. Para 2
   2. Para 6
   3. Para 7
   4. Para 8
6. Q6. SR Bommai v Union of India (1994) is associated with
   1. Anti-defection
   2. President's Rule under Art 356 — judicial review
   3. Reservation
   4. Right to Property
7. Q7. Concurrent List entry on which both Centre and State can legislate is
   1. Defence
   2. Education
   3. Police
   4. Foreign affairs
8. Q8. Entry 1 of the Union List relates to
   1. Defence of India
   2. Foreign affairs
   3. Public order
   4. Police
9. Q9. The Eleventh Schedule contains how many subjects for Panchayats
   1. 27
   2. 29
   3. 31
   4. 33
10. Q10. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments came into force in
    1. 1991
    2. 1992
    3. 1993
    4. 1994
11. Q11. Robbery under BNS 2023 is defined in
    1. Section 309
    2. Section 310
    3. Section 311
    4. Section 312
12. Q12. Dacoity under BNS 2023 requires participation of
    1. At least 3 persons
    2. At least 5 persons
    3. At least 7 persons
    4. Any number
13. Q13. Extortion is dealt with under BNS
    1. Section 308
    2. Section 309
    3. Section 318
    4. Section 320
14. Q14. Cheating is defined under BNS
    1. Section 318
    2. Section 319
    3. Section 320
    4. Section 321
15. Q15. Hridaya Ranjan Verma v State of Bihar (2000) clarified the distinction between
    1. Theft and extortion
    2. Cheating and breach of contract
    3. Robbery and dacoity
    4. Murder and culpable homicide
16. Q16. Criminal breach of trust under BNS is defined in
    1. Section 305
    2. Section 314
    3. Section 316
    4. Section 318
17. Q17. State of Maharashtra v Mohd. Yakub (1980) is a landmark on
    1. Attempt to commit offence (smuggling)
    2. Insanity defence
    3. Right of private defence
    4. Confessions
18. Q18. Pyare Lal Bhargava v State of Rajasthan (1963) held
    1. Temporary deprivation of property amounts to theft
    2. Only permanent deprivation is theft
    3. Theft requires force
    4. Theft and robbery are identical
19. Q19. Aggravated form of cheating with delivery of property is under BNS
    1. Section 318(1)
    2. Section 318(2)
    3. Section 318(4)
    4. Section 320
20. Q20. Forgery under BNS is defined in
    1. Section 336
    2. Section 340
    3. Section 463 (BNS retains numbering)
    4. Section 318
21. Q21. Zero-FIR concept means
    1. FIR with zero serial number that can be filed at any police station
    2. FIR for non-cognisable offences
    3. FIR with no charge
    4. FIR registered against zero accused
22. Q22. Lalita Kumari v Government of UP (2014) mandates
    1. Compulsory registration of FIR for cognisable offences
    2. Magistrate's permission before FIR
    3. Closure of all FIRs in 30 days
    4. Bail-only procedure
23. Q23. FIR for cognisable offence is provided under BNSS
    1. Section 154
    2. Section 173
    3. Section 197
    4. Section 200
24. Q24. Arnesh Kumar v State of Bihar (2014) laid down guidelines on
    1. Bail in dowry cases
    2. Arrest under Section 41 CrPC for offences <7 years
    3. Sentencing
    4. Plea bargaining
25. Q25. BNSS Section 35 (corresponding to CrPC 41) deals with
    1. Search
    2. Arrest by police without warrant
    3. Bail
    4. Investigation
26. Q26. Anticipatory bail is provided under BNSS
    1. Section 482
    2. Section 438 of CrPC
    3. Section 35
    4. Section 154
27. Q27. Police investigation timeline for cognisable offences punishable with imprisonment up to 10 years under BNSS is
    1. 30 days
    2. 60 days
    3. 90 days
    4. As prescribed
28. Q28. Confession to a police officer is inadmissible under
    1. BSA Section 22
    2. BSA Section 23
    3. BSA Section 24
    4. BSA Section 25 of IEA / 23 of BSA
29. Q29. Pulukuri Kotayya v Emperor (1947) is the locus classicus on
    1. Section 27 of IEA — recovery from accused
    2. Hearsay
    3. Burden of proof
    4. Estoppel
30. Q30. Admission is defined under BSA
    1. Section 14
    2. Section 15
    3. Section 16
    4. Section 17 (of IEA)
31. Q31. Aghnoo Nagesia v State of Bihar (1966) held
    1. Confession to police is admissible if voluntary
    2. Inculpatory and exculpatory parts of a confession to police are inadmissible together; prosecution cannot pick-and-choose
    3. Confession in court is always inadmissible
    4. Confessions need not be proved
32. Q32. The distinction between admission and confession is that
    1. Confession is in civil cases only
    2. Admission is statement against interest in civil/criminal proceeding; confession is admission of guilt by accused in criminal proceeding
    3. They are identical
    4. Confession is hearsay
33. Q33. Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 provides that all agreements are contracts if made by
    1. Free consent of competent parties for lawful consideration and lawful object
    2. Mere agreement
    3. Written form only
    4. Stamped paper
34. Q34. Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose (1903) held
    1. Minor's contract is voidable
    2. Minor's contract is void ab initio
    3. Minor's contract is valid
    4. Minor can ratify on majority
35. Q35. Lalman Shukla v Gauri Datt (1913) held
    1. Acceptance without knowledge of offer is no acceptance
    2. Offer once made cannot be revoked
    3. Cross-offers form contract
    4. Reward cases need writing
36. Q36. Section 73 of the Contract Act covers
    1. Quasi-contract
    2. Compensation for loss caused by breach
    3. Specific performance
    4. Frustration
37. Q37. Doctrine of frustration is codified in
    1. Section 32
    2. Section 56
    3. Section 73
    4. Section 74
38. Q38. Vicarious liability of master for servant requires
    1. Servant acted in course of employment
    2. Master's express authorisation
    3. Servant's consent
    4. None of the above
39. Q39. MC Mehta v Union of India (1987) Oleum Gas Leak case introduced
    1. Strict liability
    2. Absolute liability for hazardous industries (no exceptions)
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Public liability
40. Q40. The rule in Rylands v Fletcher (1868) imposes
    1. Strict liability for escape of dangerous things
    2. Vicarious liability
    3. Negligence-based liability
    4. No liability
41. Q41. Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) is famous for
    1. Neighbour principle of duty of care in negligence
    2. Strict liability
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Trespass
42. Q42. Special Marriage Act 1954 applies to
    1. Hindus only
    2. Persons of any religion who choose civil marriage
    3. Christians only
    4. Muslims only
43. Q43. Shayara Bano v Union of India (2017) struck down
    1. Triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) as unconstitutional
    2. Polygamy
    3. Maintenance under Section 125
    4. Mehr
44. Q44. Sarla Mudgal v Union of India (1995) held
    1. Conversion to Islam without dissolving prior Hindu marriage is bigamy
    2. Triple talaq is valid
    3. Polygamy is unconstitutional
    4. Live-in is bigamy
45. Q45. Daniel Latifi v Union of India (2001) interpreted
    1. Section 125 CrPC
    2. Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act 1986 — maintenance beyond iddat
    3. Triple talaq
    4. Polygamy
46. Q46. Section 53A of TPA deals with
    1. Fraudulent transfer
    2. Part performance
    3. Lis pendens
    4. Notice
47. Q47. Doctrine of Lis Pendens is codified in TPA
    1. Section 41
    2. Section 52
    3. Section 53
    4. Section 53A
48. Q48. Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 provides
    1. What may be transferred
    2. What cannot be transferred (spes successionis, right of re-entry, etc.)
    3. Mortgages
    4. Lease
49. Q49. The current Chief Justice of India (as of April 2026) is
    1. D Y Chandrachud
    2. Sanjiv Khanna
    3. B R Gavai
    4. J B Pardiwala
50. Q50. "Ignorantia juris non excusat" means
    1. Ignorance of law is no excuse
    2. Justice delayed is justice denied
    3. Hear the other side
    4. Innocent until proven guilty