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Daily MCQ Paper — 18 April 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 18 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. Article 32 is described as the "heart and soul of the Constitution" by
    1. Nehru
    2. Ambedkar
    3. Patel
    4. Rajendra Prasad
  2. Q2. Article 14 of the Constitution embodies
    1. Right to equality before law and equal protection of laws
    2. Right to freedom
    3. Right against exploitation
    4. Right to constitutional remedies
  3. Q3. The doctrine of basic structure was propounded in
    1. Golak Nath case
    2. Kesavananda Bharati case
    3. Minerva Mills case
    4. Maneka Gandhi case
  4. Q4. Writ of Habeas Corpus literally means
    1. You shall produce the body
    2. Show the order
    3. By what authority
    4. Be informed
  5. Q5. Article 21 has been interpreted to include right to
    1. Privacy
    2. Education
    3. Speedy trial
    4. All of the above
  6. Q6. The doctrine of pith and substance applies to
    1. Fundamental rights
    2. Distribution of legislative powers
    3. Emergency provisions
    4. Election law
  7. Q7. Article 226 grants writ jurisdiction to
    1. Supreme Court
    2. High Courts
    3. District Courts
    4. Both SC and HC
  8. Q8. Repugnancy under Article 254 arises when
    1. State law contradicts Union law on Concurrent List
    2. Two state laws conflict
    3. Union law contradicts Constitution
    4. State law violates fundamental rights
  9. Q9. The "Doctrine of Colourable Legislation" means
    1. Legislature legislates indirectly what it cannot directly
    2. Legislature uses colourful language
    3. Constitution prescribes colours
    4. Legislature has no power
  10. Q10. Quo Warranto means
    1. We command
    2. By what authority
    3. To certify
    4. You shall have
  11. Q11. Under BNS section 100 (corresponding to IPC 299), culpable homicide is
    1. Causing death without intention
    2. Causing death with knowledge or intention
    3. Accidental death
    4. Negligent death only
  12. Q12. BNS section 103 (corresponding to IPC 302) prescribes punishment for
    1. Culpable homicide
    2. Murder
    3. Theft
    4. Robbery
  13. Q13. The leading case distinguishing murder from culpable homicide not amounting to murder is
    1. Reg v Govinda
    2. State of AP v R Punnayya
    3. Both Reg v Govinda and Punnayya
    4. None
  14. Q14. In Virsa Singh v State of Punjab, the test for clause "thirdly" of murder definition is
    1. Subjective intention
    2. Whether injury inflicted intentionally and was sufficient in ordinary course of nature to cause death
    3. Death actually caused
    4. Premeditation
  15. Q15. Grievous hurt under BNS 116 (= IPC 320) includes
    1. Emasculation
    2. Permanent privation of sight of either eye
    3. Fracture or dislocation of bone
    4. All of the above
  16. Q16. BNS section 115 (formerly IPC 319) defines
    1. Murder
    2. Hurt
    3. Theft
    4. Cheating
  17. Q17. Under BNS, "common intention" is provided in
    1. Section 3(5)
    2. Section 34 (no change)
    3. Section 100
    4. Section 47
  18. Q18. Theft under BNS 303 (= IPC 378) requires
    1. Dishonest taking of movable property without consent
    2. Force
    3. Misappropriation
    4. Cheating
  19. Q19. Robbery under BNS 309 (= IPC 390) is
    1. Theft + force
    2. Theft + cheating
    3. Theft + criminal breach of trust
    4. Theft only
  20. Q20. BNS section 117 corresponds to IPC
    1. 321 — voluntarily causing hurt
    2. 322 — voluntarily causing grievous hurt
    3. 323 — punishment
    4. 325 — punishment for grievous hurt
  21. Q21. R P Kapur v State of Punjab is the leading case on
    1. Bail
    2. Quashing under CrPC 482
    3. Arrest
    4. Sentencing
  22. Q22. Under BNSS section 528 (formerly CrPC 482), inherent powers vest in
    1. Magistrate
    2. Sessions Court
    3. High Court
    4. Supreme Court
  23. Q23. The leading case on quashing of FIR is
    1. State of Haryana v Bhajan Lal
    2. Joginder Kumar v State of UP
    3. D K Basu v State of WB
    4. Hardeep Singh v State of Punjab
  24. Q24. How many categories did Bhajan Lal lay down for quashing FIR?
    1. 5
    2. 6
    3. 7
    4. 9
  25. Q25. Under BNSS, summary trials apply to offences punishable up to
    1. 1 month
    2. 3 months
    3. 6 months
    4. 3 years
  26. Q26. BNSS provides for trial by zero FIR. The provision means
    1. FIR can be filed at any police station
    2. FIR has no number
    3. FIR has no jurisdiction
    4. FIR is anonymous
  27. Q27. Maximum period of police custody under BNSS is
    1. 7 days
    2. 15 days
    3. 60 days
    4. 40 days (extended in fragments)
  28. Q28. Section 65B of Evidence Act (now BSA section 63) deals with
    1. Oral evidence
    2. Admissibility of electronic records
    3. Documents proved by primary evidence
    4. Hearsay
  29. Q29. Anvar P V v P K Basheer (2014) held that
    1. Certificate under 65B(4) is mandatory
    2. Oral evidence is sufficient for electronic records
    3. Section 65B is directory
    4. Electronic records cannot be used
  30. Q30. The leading case overruling Anvar P V on certificate requirement is
    1. Shafhi Mohammad
    2. Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal
    3. Tomaso Bruno
    4. Navjot Sandhu
  31. Q31. A confession to a police officer is
    1. Admissible
    2. Inadmissible (Section 25 IEA / BSA 23)
    3. Admissible only with magistrate present
    4. Conditionally admissible
  32. Q32. Burden of proof in criminal case lies on
    1. Defence
    2. Prosecution
    3. Accused
    4. Court
  33. Q33. Acceptance must be
    1. Absolute and unqualified
    2. Conditional
    3. Verbal only
    4. Implied only
  34. Q34. Lalman Shukla v Gauri Dutt (1913) is on
    1. Acceptance without knowledge of offer
    2. Capacity to contract
    3. Free consent
    4. Consideration
  35. Q35. Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose held
    1. Minor's contract is voidable
    2. Minor's contract is void ab initio
    3. Minor's contract is valid
    4. Minor's contract is enforceable on majority
  36. Q36. Frustration of contract is dealt with in section
    1. 39
    2. 56
    3. 73
    4. 74
  37. Q37. Consideration under section 2(d) ICA includes
    1. Past consideration
    2. Present consideration
    3. Future consideration
    4. All of the above
  38. Q38. M C Mehta v Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak) introduced
    1. Strict liability
    2. Absolute liability
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Joint liability
  39. Q39. Rylands v Fletcher rule applies to
    1. Negligence
    2. Strict liability for non-natural use of land
    3. Defamation
    4. Conversion
  40. Q40. Defamation requires
    1. Publication
    2. Defamatory statement
    3. Reference to plaintiff
    4. All of the above
  41. Q41. The maxim Volenti non fit injuria means
    1. Loss without injury
    2. To one who consents, no harm is done
    3. Injury without loss
    4. Trespass
  42. Q42. Under Hindu Marriage Act 1955, conditions of valid marriage are in section
    1. 5
    2. 7
    3. 9
    4. 13
  43. Q43. Bigamy under HMA is governed by
    1. Section 5(i) read with section 17
    2. Section 9
    3. Section 11 only
    4. Section 13
  44. Q44. Under Muslim law, talaq-e-biddat (triple talaq) was held unconstitutional in
    1. Shayara Bano v Union of India
    2. Shah Bano
    3. Danial Latifi
    4. Sarla Mudgal
  45. Q45. Under Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act 2005, daughters become
    1. Class I heirs
    2. Coparceners by birth
    3. Karta capable
    4. All of the above
  46. Q46. Specific Relief Act 1963 was substantially amended in
    1. 2015
    2. 2016
    3. 2018
    4. 2020
  47. Q47. Section 6 of Transfer of Property Act lists
    1. What may be transferred
    2. What may not be transferred
    3. Conditions of transfer
    4. Modes of transfer
  48. Q48. Doctrine of part performance is codified in
    1. Section 53A TPA
    2. Section 54 TPA
    3. Section 55 TPA
    4. Section 58 TPA
  49. Q49. The first woman Chief Justice of India would be
    1. Justice Indu Malhotra
    2. Justice B V Nagarathna
    3. Justice Indira Banerjee
    4. Justice Hima Kohli
  50. Q50. The current Chief Justice of India (as of April 2026) is
    1. D Y Chandrachud
    2. Sanjiv Khanna
    3. B R Gavai
    4. Surya Kant

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