Daily MCQ Paper — 19 April 2026

Daily MCQ Paper — 19 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

1. Q1. The CAG of India is appointed under Article
   1. 148
   2. 149
   3. 150
   4. 151
2. Q2. The CAG's salary and conditions of service are charged on the
   1. State Consolidated Fund
   2. Consolidated Fund of India
   3. Contingency Fund
   4. Public Account
3. Q3. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor under Article
   1. 233
   2. 234
   3. 235
   4. 236
4. Q4. CAG submits reports relating to State accounts to the
   1. President
   2. State Legislature
   3. Governor
   4. Chief Minister
5. Q5. Control over subordinate courts (postings, promotions, leave of district judges) is vested in the
   1. Governor
   2. State Government
   3. High Court
   4. Chief Justice of India
6. Q6. Recruitment of persons (other than district judges) to State judicial service is governed by Article
   1. 233
   2. 234
   3. 235
   4. 236
7. Q7. The Governor of a State is appointed under Article
   1. 153
   2. 154
   3. 155
   4. 156
8. Q8. The Governor holds office during
   1. Pleasure of the President
   2. Five-year fixed term
   3. Pleasure of the State Legislature
   4. Pleasure of the CM
9. Q9. The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to the
   1. Governor
   2. Legislative Assembly
   3. President
   4. Rajya Sabha
10. Q10. Article 233 requires that for appointment as a district judge from the Bar, a candidate must have practised as advocate/pleader for not less than
    1. 5 years
    2. 7 years
    3. 10 years
    4. 15 years
11. Q11. Under BNS, "false document" is defined in Section
    1. 256
    2. 257
    3. 258
    4. 259
12. Q12. Forgery for the purpose of cheating attracts punishment under BNS Section
    1. 260
    2. 261
    3. 262
    4. 263
13. Q13. Forgery is defined in BNS Section
    1. 257
    2. 258
    3. 259
    4. 260
14. Q14. Punishment for forgery under BNS Section 259 is imprisonment up to
    1. 2 years
    2. 3 years
    3. 5 years
    4. 7 years
15. Q15. Forgery for the purpose of harming reputation attracts punishment under BNS Section
    1. 261
    2. 262
    3. 263
    4. 264
16. Q16. Counterfeiting a property mark is punishable under BNS Section
    1. 275
    2. 276
    3. 277
    4. 278
17. Q17. Making a false mark on any package containing goods attracts BNS Section
    1. 278
    2. 279
    3. 280
    4. 281
18. Q18. Selling goods marked with a counterfeit property mark is punishable under BNS Section
    1. 276
    2. 277
    3. 278
    4. 279
19. Q19. Tampering with a property mark with intent to cause injury is punishable under BNS Section
    1. 280
    2. 281
    3. 282
    4. 283
20. Q20. Abetment of suicide is punishable under BNS Section
    1. 105
    2. 106
    3. 108 (general)
    4. 109
21. Q21. The scope of BNSS Section 528 (inherent powers of HC) is exercised
    1. Frequently and as appellate review
    2. Sparingly and only in exceptional circumstances
    3. For first appeals
    4. For evidence collection
22. Q22. First Information Report under BNSS is registered under Section
    1. 154 (CrPC)
    2. 173
    3. 175
    4. 181
23. Q23. Magistrate's power to order investigation under CrPC s.156(3) is now under BNSS Section
    1. 156(3)
    2. 175(3)
    3. 176
    4. 177
24. Q24. Power of police to investigate cognizable offences without magistrate's order is under BNSS Section
    1. 154
    2. 156(3)
    3. 175(2)
    4. 176
25. Q25. Inherent powers of the High Court are preserved under BNSS Section
    1. 482 (CrPC equivalent retained)
    2. 528
    3. 530
    4. 532
26. Q26. Police report on completion of investigation (CrPC s.173) is now under BNSS Section
    1. 173
    2. 193
    3. 200
    4. 202
27. Q27. Regular bail in non-bailable offences (CrPC s.439) is in BNSS Section
    1. 438
    2. 439
    3. 480
    4. 483
28. Q28. Hearsay evidence is, as a general rule,
    1. Always admissible
    2. Not admissible (with exceptions)
    3. Conclusive proof
    4. Primary evidence
29. Q29. Confession to a police officer is barred under BSA Section corresponding to IEA s.25, which is
    1. 22
    2. 23
    3. 24 (BSA)
    4. 25
30. Q30. Dying declarations are admissible under BSA Section corresponding to IEA s.32(1) which is
    1. 19
    2. 20
    3. 25
    4. 27
31. Q31. Standard of proof in criminal cases is
    1. Preponderance of probabilities
    2. Beyond reasonable doubt
    3. Mere suspicion
    4. Clear and convincing
32. Q32. Section 27 of IEA (now in BSA) — Information leading to discovery of fact — is admissible
    1. Even if confession to police
    2. Only if confession to magistrate
    3. Only after trial
    4. Never
33. Q33. Consideration must move at the desire of the
    1. Promisor (Section 2(d))
    2. Promisee
    3. Either party
    4. Third party
34. Q34. Section 10 of the Contract Act lists essentials including
    1. Offer, acceptance, consideration
    2. Free consent, lawful object, competent parties, lawful consideration, not declared void
    3. Both A and B
    4. Privity
35. Q35. Undue influence is defined in Section
    1. 15
    2. 16
    3. 17
    4. 18
36. Q36. Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act defines a "contract" as
    1. Any promise
    2. An agreement enforceable by law
    3. Mutual promises
    4. Offer and acceptance
37. Q37. An agreement not enforceable by law is
    1. A contract
    2. Void ab initio
    3. Voidable
    4. Quasi-contract
38. Q38. The maxim "ubi jus ibi remedium" means
    1. Where there is duty there is right
    2. Where there is a right, there is a remedy
    3. Damages without injury
    4. Injury without damages
39. Q39. Damnum sine injuria means
    1. Injury without damage
    2. Damage without legal injury (no remedy)
    3. Both damage and injury
    4. Legal injury without damage
40. Q40. Vicarious liability of master for servant's tort requires
    1. Tort committed in course of employment
    2. Independent contractor work
    3. Friendly act
    4. Personal act
41. Q41. The defence of "volenti non fit injuria" applies when
    1. Plaintiff was unaware
    2. Plaintiff voluntarily consented to risk
    3. Defendant was negligent
    4. None
42. Q42. Judicial separation under HMA is provided in Section
    1. 9
    2. 10
    3. 11
    4. 13
43. Q43. Restitution of Conjugal Rights under HMA is provided in Section
    1. 9
    2. 10
    3. 11
    4. 12
44. Q44. Under the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act 2005, daughters are
    1. Equal coparceners with sons
    2. Limited heirs
    3. Excluded
    4. Heirs only on father's death without son
45. Q45. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the minimum age for marriage of bride is
    1. 15 years
    2. 18 years
    3. 21 years
    4. None
46. Q46. Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 defines transfer of property as
    1. Sale only
    2. Act by which a living person conveys property to another or himself
    3. Inheritance
    4. Will
47. Q47. Doctrine of "feeding the grant by estoppel" is in TPA Section
    1. 41
    2. 43
    3. 44
    4. 45
48. Q48. "Living person" under TPA includes
    1. Companies and associations
    2. Only individuals
    3. Only minors
    4. Only HUF
49. Q49. The seat of the Supreme Court of India is at
    1. New Delhi
    2. Mumbai
    3. Allahabad
    4. Kolkata
50. Q50. The Attorney General for India is appointed under Article
    1. 76
    2. 77
    3. 78
    4. 79