Daily MCQ Paper — 2 May 2026

May 2, 2026 ·

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 2 May 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

Q1. Article 14 guarantees
1. Equality before the law and equal protection of laws
2. Right to life
3. Freedom of speech
4. Right to property
Q2. Right against double jeopardy is enshrined in
1. Art 20(1)
2. Art 20(2)
3. Art 20(3)
4. Art 21
Q3. Habeas corpus is issued
1. Against private parties only
2. By the Supreme Court / High Courts to produce a person
3. Only in fundamental-rights cases
4. By President
Q4. Article 32 was called the "heart and soul" by
1. Nehru
2. Patel
3. Ambedkar
4. Rajagopalachari
Q5. "Equality before Law" is borrowed from
1. UK
2. USA
3. Ireland
4. Australia
Q6. Removal of a Supreme Court judge requires
1. Simple majority
2. Special majority of each House
3. 2/3rd of total membership only
4. Presidential discretion
Q7. Reservation in promotions for SC/ST was upheld in
1. Indra Sawhney
2. M. Nagaraj v. UoI
3. Mandal case
4. Champakam Dorairajan
Q8. Doctrine of pleasure regarding civil services is in
1. Art 309
2. Art 310
3. Art 311
4. Art 312
Q9. Which writ is issued against a public officer to compel duty?
1. Habeas corpus
2. Mandamus
3. Certiorari
4. Quo warranto
Q10. The doctrine of "Pleasure" of the President applies to
1. Judges of SC
2. Civil servants
3. Members of Parliament
4. Speakers
Q11. Section 498A IPC deals with
1. Dowry
2. Cruelty by husband or his relatives
3. Domestic violence civil
4. Adultery
Q12. Common intention is defined under BNS Section
1. 3(5)
2. 34 IPC equivalent in BNS
3. 61
4. 100
Q13. BNS 2023 replaces
1. CrPC
2. IPC 1860
3. Indian Evidence Act
4. Indian Penal Code (1860) only
Q14. Mens rea means
1. Guilty body
2. Guilty mind
3. Guilty silence
4. Guilty conduct
Q15. Under the BNS, the offence of mob lynching is dealt with under section
1. 103
2. 110
3. 111
4. 115
Q16. Common intention is in IPC §
1. 34
2. 149
3. 120A
4. 141
Q17. Right of private defence of body extends to causing death under §
1. 100
2. 101
3. 102
4. 97
Q18. Murder under IPC was defined in Section
1. 299
2. 300
3. 302
4. 304
Q19. Punishment for organised crime is introduced for the first time at central level in
1. UAPA
2. BNS
3. MCOCA
4. PMLA
Q20. Sec 124A IPC dealt with
1. Treason
2. Sedition
3. Waging war
4. Secession
Q21. Anticipatory bail provision is
1. §438 CrPC
2. §437
3. §439
4. §439A
Q22. Sec 482 CrPC deals with
1. Inherent powers of HC
2. Magistrate's powers
3. Witness summons
4. Bail
Q23. BNSS 2023 replaced
1. CrPC 1973
2. IPC 1860
3. IEA 1872
4. PCA 1988
Q24. Anticipatory bail is governed by BNSS Section
1. 438
2. 480
3. 482
4. 187
Q25. Plea bargaining under BNSS is dealt with in Chapter
1. XXI
2. XXIA
3. XXIIA
4. XXVI
Q26. FIR is registered under CrPC §
1. 154
2. 161
3. 164
4. 156
Q27. Plea bargaining was introduced in CrPC by
1. Cr. Law Amendment 2005
2. CrPC 1973 originally
3. Amendment 2008
4. Amendment 2018
Q28. Doctrine of res gestae appears in
1. §6
2. §7
3. §8
4. §32
Q29. Burden of proof in criminal cases lies on
1. Accused
2. Prosecution
3. Court
4. Investigating officer
Q30. Burden of proof in criminal cases lies on
1. Accused
2. Prosecution
3. Court
4. Witness
Q31. Hearsay evidence is generally
1. Admissible
2. Inadmissible with limited exceptions
3. Always admissible
4. Admissible in criminal cases only
Q32. Dying declaration is admissible under
1. §32(1)
2. §33
3. §35
4. §45
Q33. Specific performance of contract is governed by
1. ICA 1872
2. Specific Relief Act 1963
3. Sale of Goods Act
4. TPA
Q34. Contract with a minor is
1. Voidable
2. Void ab initio
3. Valid
4. Enforceable
Q35. Free consent is defined in §
1. 13
2. 14
3. 15
4. 16
Q36. Consideration is defined in §
1. 2(d)
2. 2(e)
3. 2(g)
4. 2(h)
Q37. An agreement without consideration is
1. Void
2. Voidable
3. Valid
4. Illegal
Q38. Absolute liability was evolved in India in
1. M C Mehta v. UoI (1986)
2. Bhopal case
3. Vellore Citizens
4. Rylands case
Q39. Rule in Rylands v Fletcher (1868) imposes
1. Strict liability
2. Absolute liability
3. No-fault liability
4. Vicarious liability
Q40. Vicarious liability of master for servant requires the act to be done
1. Outside employment
2. In course of employment
3. Privately
4. Voluntarily
Q41. Donoghue v. Stevenson (1932) established
1. Strict liability
2. Neighbour principle in negligence
3. Vicarious liability
4. Doctrine of frustration
Q42. Section 13 of HMA 1955 deals with
1. Marriage
2. Restitution of conjugal rights
3. Divorce
4. Maintenance
Q43. Mehr (Dower) under Muslim law is
1. Optional
2. Obligatory
3. A gift
4. A loan
Q44. Triple talaq was declared unconstitutional in
1. Shah Bano
2. Shayara Bano
3. Danial Latifi
4. Sarla Mudgal
Q45. Hindu Marriage Act applies to
1. Hindus only
2. Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, Sikhs
3. All Indians
4. Hindus and Christians
Q46. Transfer of Property Act, 1882 applies to
1. Movable property only
2. Immovable property by act of parties
3. Both
4. Testamentary transfers
Q47. Specific Relief Act 1963 was significantly amended in
1. 2018
2. 2019
3. 2020
4. 2021
Q48. "Easement" is defined in
1. TPA
2. Easements Act 1882
3. Indian Contract Act
4. Registration Act
Q49. "Stare decisis" means
1. To stand by what is decided
2. To overrule precedent
3. To dissent
4. To remand
Q50. "Habeas corpus" originates from which language?
1. Latin
2. Greek
3. French
4. German