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Daily MCQ Paper — 1 May 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 1 May 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. Article 32 was called the "heart and soul" by
    1. Nehru
    2. Patel
    3. Ambedkar
    4. Rajagopalachari
  2. Q2. Reservation in promotions for SC/ST was upheld in
    1. Indra Sawhney
    2. M. Nagaraj v. UoI
    3. Mandal case
    4. Champakam Dorairajan
  3. Q3. The Right to Education is a fundamental right under
    1. Article 19
    2. Article 21
    3. Article 21A
    4. Article 45
  4. Q4. Article 14 guarantees
    1. Equality before the law and equal protection of laws
    2. Right to life
    3. Freedom of speech
    4. Right to property
  5. Q5. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution flows from
    1. Art 248
    2. Art 368
    3. Art 246
    4. Art 226
  6. Q6. Right to privacy was declared a Fundamental Right in
    1. Maneka Gandhi
    2. Puttaswamy
    3. Naz Foundation
    4. Vishaka
  7. Q7. Basic structure doctrine was propounded in
    1. Golak Nath
    2. Kesavananda Bharati
    3. Minerva Mills
    4. Indira Nehru Gandhi
  8. Q8. The doctrine of "Pleasure" of the President applies to
    1. Judges of SC
    2. Civil servants
    3. Members of Parliament
    4. Speakers
  9. Q9. Doctrine of pleasure regarding civil services is in
    1. Art 309
    2. Art 310
    3. Art 311
    4. Art 312
  10. Q10. Which writ is issued against a public officer to compel duty?
    1. Habeas corpus
    2. Mandamus
    3. Certiorari
    4. Quo warranto
  11. Q11. Mens rea means
    1. Guilty body
    2. Guilty mind
    3. Guilty silence
    4. Guilty conduct
  12. Q12. Section 498A IPC deals with
    1. Dowry
    2. Cruelty by husband or his relatives
    3. Domestic violence civil
    4. Adultery
  13. Q13. BNS 2023 replaces
    1. CrPC
    2. IPC 1860
    3. Indian Evidence Act
    4. Indian Penal Code (1860) only
  14. Q14. Under the BNS, the offence of mob lynching is dealt with under section
    1. 103
    2. 110
    3. 111
    4. 115
  15. Q15. Murder under IPC was defined in Section
    1. 299
    2. 300
    3. 302
    4. 304
  16. Q16. Theft requires intention to take property
    1. Permanently
    2. Dishonestly without consent
    3. Forcefully
    4. Openly
  17. Q17. Theft is defined under BNS Section
    1. 303
    2. 304
    3. 305
    4. 306
  18. Q18. Common intention is in IPC §
    1. 34
    2. 149
    3. 120A
    4. 141
  19. Q19. Common intention is defined under BNS Section
    1. 3(5)
    2. 34 IPC equivalent in BNS
    3. 61
    4. 100
  20. Q20. Section 75 BNS deals with
    1. Theft
    2. Sexual harassment
    3. Cheating
    4. Defamation
  21. Q21. BNSS replaces
    1. CrPC 1973
    2. IPC 1860
    3. Evidence Act 1872
    4. POCSO
  22. Q22. Zero FIR can be registered
    1. Only at PS of jurisdiction
    2. At any police station
    3. Only at police HQ
    4. Only by SHO
  23. Q23. Mercy petition timeline introduced in BNSS is
    1. 30 days
    2. 60 days
    3. 90 days
    4. 45 days
  24. Q24. Anticipatory bail provision is
    1. §438 CrPC
    2. §437
    3. §439
    4. §439A
  25. Q25. BNSS 2023 replaced
    1. CrPC 1973
    2. IPC 1860
    3. IEA 1872
    4. PCA 1988
  26. Q26. "Summons" case under BNSS means a case
    1. Triable by Sessions Court
    2. Punishable with up to 2 years imprisonment
    3. Punishable with up to 3 years
    4. Triable summarily
  27. Q27. Sec 482 CrPC deals with
    1. Inherent powers of HC
    2. Magistrate's powers
    3. Witness summons
    4. Bail
  28. Q28. Burden of proof in criminal cases lies on
    1. Accused
    2. Prosecution
    3. Court
    4. Witness
  29. Q29. Hearsay evidence is generally
    1. Admissible
    2. Inadmissible with limited exceptions
    3. Always admissible
    4. Admissible in criminal cases only
  30. Q30. Doctrine of res gestae appears in
    1. §6
    2. §7
    3. §8
    4. §32
  31. Q31. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaces
    1. IPC
    2. Evidence Act 1872
    3. CrPC
    4. POCSO
  32. Q32. Dying declaration is admissible under
    1. §32(1)
    2. §33
    3. §35
    4. §45
  33. Q33. Contract with a minor is
    1. Voidable
    2. Void ab initio
    3. Valid
    4. Enforceable
  34. Q34. Consideration is defined in §
    1. 2(d)
    2. 2(e)
    3. 2(g)
    4. 2(h)
  35. Q35. Specific performance of contract is governed by
    1. ICA 1872
    2. Specific Relief Act 1963
    3. Sale of Goods Act
    4. TPA
  36. Q36. Free consent is defined in §
    1. 13
    2. 14
    3. 15
    4. 16
  37. Q37. Doctrine of frustration corresponds to which Indian section?
    1. sec 55
    2. sec 56
    3. sec 73
    4. sec 74
  38. Q38. Rule in Rylands v Fletcher (1868) imposes
    1. Strict liability
    2. Absolute liability
    3. No-fault liability
    4. Vicarious liability
  39. Q39. Absolute liability was evolved in India in
    1. M C Mehta v. UoI (1986)
    2. Bhopal case
    3. Vellore Citizens
    4. Rylands case
  40. Q40. Defamation has elements
    1. Statement, publication, reference, defamatory imputation
    2. Loss only
    3. Intention only
    4. Truth only
  41. Q41. Vicarious liability of master for servant requires the act to be done
    1. Outside employment
    2. In course of employment
    3. Privately
    4. Voluntarily
  42. Q42. Section 13 of HMA 1955 deals with
    1. Marriage
    2. Restitution of conjugal rights
    3. Divorce
    4. Maintenance
  43. Q43. Triple talaq was declared unconstitutional in
    1. Shah Bano
    2. Shayara Bano
    3. Danial Latifi
    4. Sarla Mudgal
  44. Q44. Mehr (Dower) under Muslim law is
    1. Optional
    2. Obligatory
    3. A gift
    4. A loan
  45. Q45. Iddat is the period observed by a Muslim woman
    1. Before marriage
    2. After divorce or husband's death
    3. During marriage
    4. Only after death
  46. Q46. Transfer of Property Act, 1882 applies to
    1. Movable property only
    2. Immovable property by act of parties
    3. Both
    4. Testamentary transfers
  47. Q47. Specific Relief Act 1963 was significantly amended in
    1. 2018
    2. 2019
    3. 2020
    4. 2021
  48. Q48. "Immovable property" is defined in TPA Section
    1. 3
    2. 5
    3. 7
    4. 9
  49. Q49. "Mens rea" means
    1. Guilty mind
    2. Guilty act
    3. Joint intention
    4. Provocation
  50. Q50. The Latin maxim "audi alteram partem" means
    1. Hear the other side
    2. No one shall be a judge
    3. Beyond reasonable doubt
    4. Let the master answer