Daily MCQ Paper — 20 April 2026

Daily MCQ Paper — 20 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

1. Q1. Recruitment of persons (other than district judges) to State judicial service is governed by Article
   1. 233
   2. 234
   3. 235
   4. 236
2. Q2. The CAG of India is appointed under Article
   1. 148
   2. 149
   3. 150
   4. 151
3. Q3. Article 233 requires that for appointment as a district judge from the Bar, a candidate must have practised as advocate/pleader for not less than
   1. 5 years
   2. 7 years
   3. 10 years
   4. 15 years
4. Q4. The CAG's salary and conditions of service are charged on the
   1. State Consolidated Fund
   2. Consolidated Fund of India
   3. Contingency Fund
   4. Public Account
5. Q5. CAG submits reports relating to State accounts to the
   1. President
   2. State Legislature
   3. Governor
   4. Chief Minister
6. Q6. Control over subordinate courts (postings, promotions, leave of district judges) is vested in the
   1. Governor
   2. State Government
   3. High Court
   4. Chief Justice of India
7. Q7. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor under Article
   1. 233
   2. 234
   3. 235
   4. 236
8. Q8. The Governor of a State is appointed under Article
   1. 153
   2. 154
   3. 155
   4. 156
9. Q9. The Governor holds office during
   1. Pleasure of the President
   2. Five-year fixed term
   3. Pleasure of the State Legislature
   4. Pleasure of the CM
10. Q10. Article 256 obligates a State to ensure compliance with
    1. Constitution only
    2. Laws made by Parliament
    3. State laws
    4. Treaties only
11. Q11. Under BNS, "false document" is defined in Section
    1. 256
    2. 257
    3. 258
    4. 259
12. Q12. Punishment for forgery under BNS Section 259 is imprisonment up to
    1. 2 years
    2. 3 years
    3. 5 years
    4. 7 years
13. Q13. Forgery is defined in BNS Section
    1. 257
    2. 258
    3. 259
    4. 260
14. Q14. Forgery for the purpose of cheating attracts punishment under BNS Section
    1. 260
    2. 261
    3. 262
    4. 263
15. Q15. Forgery for the purpose of harming reputation attracts punishment under BNS Section
    1. 261
    2. 262
    3. 263
    4. 264
16. Q16. Counterfeiting a property mark is punishable under BNS Section
    1. 275
    2. 276
    3. 277
    4. 278
17. Q17. Selling goods marked with a counterfeit property mark is punishable under BNS Section
    1. 276
    2. 277
    3. 278
    4. 279
18. Q18. Making a false mark on any package containing goods attracts BNS Section
    1. 278
    2. 279
    3. 280
    4. 281
19. Q19. Tampering with a property mark with intent to cause injury is punishable under BNS Section
    1. 280
    2. 281
    3. 282
    4. 283
20. Q20. BNS Section 109 deals with
    1. Abetment of suicide of child/insane
    2. Attempted suicide
    3. Culpable homicide
    4. Mischief
21. Q21. Inherent powers of the High Court are preserved under BNSS Section
    1. 482 (CrPC equivalent retained)
    2. 528
    3. 530
    4. 532
22. Q22. The scope of BNSS Section 528 (inherent powers of HC) is exercised
    1. Frequently and as appellate review
    2. Sparingly and only in exceptional circumstances
    3. For first appeals
    4. For evidence collection
23. Q23. First Information Report under BNSS is registered under Section
    1. 154 (CrPC)
    2. 173
    3. 175
    4. 181
24. Q24. Power of police to investigate cognizable offences without magistrate's order is under BNSS Section
    1. 154
    2. 156(3)
    3. 175(2)
    4. 176
25. Q25. Anticipatory bail provision (CrPC s.438) is in BNSS Section
    1. 438
    2. 480
    3. 482
    4. 484
26. Q26. Magistrate's power to order investigation under CrPC s.156(3) is now under BNSS Section
    1. 156(3)
    2. 175(3)
    3. 176
    4. 177
27. Q27. Regular bail in non-bailable offences (CrPC s.439) is in BNSS Section
    1. 438
    2. 439
    3. 480
    4. 483
28. Q28. Dying declarations are admissible under BSA Section corresponding to IEA s.32(1) which is
    1. 19
    2. 20
    3. 25
    4. 27
29. Q29. Section 27 of IEA (now in BSA) — Information leading to discovery of fact — is admissible
    1. Even if confession to police
    2. Only if confession to magistrate
    3. Only after trial
    4. Never
30. Q30. Expert opinion is admissible when
    1. Court calls
    2. Court forms its own opinion
    3. Court needs guidance on science, art, foreign law, handwriting, fingerprints
    4. Always
31. Q31. Hearsay evidence is, as a general rule,
    1. Always admissible
    2. Not admissible (with exceptions)
    3. Conclusive proof
    4. Primary evidence
32. Q32. Confession to a police officer is barred under BSA Section corresponding to IEA s.25, which is
    1. 22
    2. 23
    3. 24 (BSA)
    4. 25
33. Q33. Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act defines a "contract" as
    1. Any promise
    2. An agreement enforceable by law
    3. Mutual promises
    4. Offer and acceptance
34. Q34. An agreement not enforceable by law is
    1. A contract
    2. Void ab initio
    3. Voidable
    4. Quasi-contract
35. Q35. Consideration must move at the desire of the
    1. Promisor (Section 2(d))
    2. Promisee
    3. Either party
    4. Third party
36. Q36. Coercion is defined in Section
    1. 15
    2. 16
    3. 17
    4. 18
37. Q37. Undue influence is defined in Section
    1. 15
    2. 16
    3. 17
    4. 18
38. Q38. The maxim "ubi jus ibi remedium" means
    1. Where there is duty there is right
    2. Where there is a right, there is a remedy
    3. Damages without injury
    4. Injury without damages
39. Q39. Injuria sine damno means
    1. Legal injury without actual damage (actionable)
    2. Damage without injury
    3. Both required
    4. Neither
40. Q40. Damnum sine injuria means
    1. Injury without damage
    2. Damage without legal injury (no remedy)
    3. Both damage and injury
    4. Legal injury without damage
41. Q41. The rule in Rylands v. Fletcher imposes
    1. Liability based on intent
    2. Strict liability for non-natural use causing escape
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. No liability without negligence
42. Q42. Restitution of Conjugal Rights under HMA is provided in Section
    1. 9
    2. 10
    3. 11
    4. 12
43. Q43. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the minimum age for marriage of bride is
    1. 15 years
    2. 18 years
    3. 21 years
    4. None
44. Q44. Void marriages under HMA Section 11 include
    1. Bigamy
    2. Sapinda relationship without custom
    3. Prohibited degrees
    4. All of these
45. Q45. Divorce by mutual consent is under HMA Section
    1. 13
    2. 13A
    3. 13B
    4. 14
46. Q46. Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 defines transfer of property as
    1. Sale only
    2. Act by which a living person conveys property to another or himself
    3. Inheritance
    4. Will
47. Q47. Doctrine of "feeding the grant by estoppel" is in TPA Section
    1. 41
    2. 43
    3. 44
    4. 45
48. Q48. "Living person" under TPA includes
    1. Companies and associations
    2. Only individuals
    3. Only minors
    4. Only HUF
49. Q49. The seat of the Supreme Court of India is at
    1. New Delhi
    2. Mumbai
    3. Allahabad
    4. Kolkata
50. Q50. The current Chief Justice of India (May 2026) is
    1. D Y Chandrachud
    2. Sanjiv Khanna
    3. B R Gavai
    4. Other