Login Start Free Trial

Daily MCQ Paper — 22 April 2026

·
📝 Online Quiz Engine

Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

Take this quiz online with timer, mark-for-review, instant scorecard, percentile, and per-question explanations. CLAT scoring scheme: +1 / -0.25.

Daily MCQ Paper — 22 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131 covers disputes between
    1. Two private parties
    2. Government of India and States or between States
    3. Citizens and States
    4. Public officials
  2. Q2. Article 137 empowers the Supreme Court to
    1. Issue writs
    2. Review its own judgments and orders
    3. Decide election disputes
    4. Advise the President
  3. Q3. Article 124 of the Constitution deals with
    1. Establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court
    2. High Courts
    3. Election Commission
    4. UPSC
  4. Q4. Article 142 enables the Supreme Court to pass orders necessary for
    1. Doing complete justice in a pending matter
    2. Election disputes
    3. Money bills
    4. Treaty interpretation
  5. Q5. Article 143 (Advisory Jurisdiction) empowers the President to refer to the SC questions of
    1. Only constitutional law
    2. Public importance involving law or fact
    3. Election disputes
    4. Criminal matters only
  6. Q6. Article 226 writ jurisdiction of the High Court is
    1. Narrower than Article 32
    2. Wider than Article 32 — covers FRs and any other purpose
    3. Same as Article 32
    4. Limited to civil matters
  7. Q7. Article 312A (added by 28th Amendment, 1972) empowers Parliament to
    1. Create new IAS
    2. Vary/revoke certain conditions of service of IAS members
    3. Abolish IAS
    4. Modify Rajya Sabha
  8. Q8. The 16th Finance Commission was constituted in
    1. 2020
    2. 2022
    3. 2023
    4. 2024
  9. Q9. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997) held that
    1. Tribunals can oust HC writ jurisdiction
    2. Judicial review under Articles 32/226 is part of basic structure
    3. Article 323A is unconstitutional
    4. SC has no power of review
  10. Q10. Article 280 of the Constitution provides for
    1. GST Council
    2. Finance Commission
    3. Inter-State Council
    4. Election Commission
  11. Q11. Section 197 BNS, 2023 deals with imputations and assertions prejudicial to
    1. National integration
    2. Family honour
    3. Property
    4. Public order only
  12. Q12. Section 240 BNS, 2023 deals with
    1. False evidence
    2. Fabricating false evidence
    3. Giving false evidence
    4. Defamation
  13. Q13. Section 196 of the BNS, 2023 deals with
    1. Murder
    2. Promoting enmity between groups on grounds of religion, race etc.
    3. Theft
    4. Defamation
  14. Q14. Section 357 BNS provides for
    1. Sale of obscene books
    2. Voluntarily causing hurt
    3. Punishment for printing or engraving matter known to be defamatory
    4. Trespass
  15. Q15. Section 241 BNS prescribes punishment for
    1. Giving false evidence in judicial proceeding
    2. Theft
    3. Murder
    4. Cheating
  16. Q16. Section 351 BNS deals with
    1. Theft
    2. Defamation
    3. Criminal intimidation
    4. Murder
  17. Q17. Mens rea required for abetment of suicide includes
    1. Mere knowledge
    2. Active instigation, conspiracy or intentional aid
    3. Pure negligence
    4. Strict liability
  18. Q18. Section 354 BNS — punishment for
    1. Theft
    2. Murder
    3. Defamation by spoken words
    4. Mischief
  19. Q19. Section 374 BNS deals with
    1. Abetment of suicide
    2. Causing hurt
    3. Theft
    4. Trespass
  20. Q20. BNS, 2023 came into force on
    1. 1 July 2023
    2. 1 January 2024
    3. 1 July 2024
    4. 1 January 2025
  21. Q21. Section 187 BNSS deals with
    1. Bail
    2. Police remand and judicial custody (60/90 days for charge-sheet)
    3. Cognizance
    4. Trial
  22. Q22. Stages of police investigation include
    1. Cognizance, arrest, investigation, charge-sheet
    2. Trial only
    3. Sentencing only
    4. None of these
  23. Q23. Section 173 BNSS, 2023 deals with
    1. First Information Report (FIR)
    2. Arrest
    3. Investigation by police officer
    4. Trial
  24. Q24. The 90-day period for charge-sheet under Section 187 BNSS applies to offences punishable with
    1. Imprisonment up to 3 years
    2. Imprisonment up to 7 years
    3. Death/life/imprisonment of 10+ years
    4. Fine only
  25. Q25. Default bail (Section 187(3) BNSS) is granted when
    1. Charge-sheet is delayed beyond statutory period
    2. Accused is wealthy
    3. Offence is non-bailable
    4. None of these
  26. Q26. "Cognizance" of an offence by a Magistrate under Section 210 BNSS means
    1. Trial
    2. Application of judicial mind to commencement of proceedings
    3. Arrest
    4. Investigation
  27. Q27. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar (2014) is a leading case on
    1. Bail
    2. Arrest in offences punishable with up to 7 years (mandatory checklist)
    3. Sentencing
    4. Evidence
  28. Q28. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 came into force on
    1. 1 July 2023
    2. 1 July 2024
    3. 1 January 2024
    4. 1 January 2025
  29. Q29. Section 6 of BSA (former Section 6 IEA) corresponds to the doctrine of
    1. Hearsay
    2. Res gestae
    3. Estoppel
    4. Burden of proof
  30. Q30. "Motive" under Section 8 BSA is
    1. A primary fact
    2. A relevant fact
    3. Direct evidence
    4. Conclusive proof
  31. Q31. Section 8 BSA deals with
    1. Conduct relevant if it influences or is influenced by a fact in issue
    2. Confessions
    3. Documents
    4. Witness competency
  32. Q32. Section 9 BSA deals with
    1. Burden of proof
    2. Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant fact
    3. Confessions
    4. Hearsay
  33. Q33. A proposal under Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act becomes binding on the proposer when
    1. Made
    2. Communicated to the proposer
    3. Accepted
    4. Signed
  34. Q34. Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (1913) is a leading case on
    1. Capacity
    2. Communication of proposal — knowledge required for acceptance
    3. Consideration
    4. Free consent
  35. Q35. Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903) established that an agreement by a minor is
    1. Voidable
    2. Void ab initio
    3. Valid
    4. Unenforceable but not void
  36. Q36. "Consideration" under Section 25 ICA must be
    1. From the promisee only
    2. From the promisee or any other person at the desire of the promisor
    3. Adequate
    4. Lawful only
  37. Q37. "Past consideration" is
    1. Not valid in India
    2. Valid as consideration in India (unlike English law)
    3. Valid only in commercial contracts
    4. Valid only in writing
  38. Q38. Donoghue v. Stevenson (1932) is the foundation of
    1. Strict liability
    2. Modern law of negligence (neighbour principle)
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Defamation
  39. Q39. Rylands v. Fletcher (1868) established the rule of
    1. Vicarious liability
    2. Strict liability for non-natural use of land
    3. Negligence
    4. Trespass
  40. Q40. M. C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987 — Oleum Gas Leak case) introduced
    1. Strict liability
    2. Absolute liability — no exceptions
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Trespass
  41. Q41. Vicarious liability of master for servant's tort applies when
    1. Servant acts outside employment
    2. Servant acts in the course of employment
    3. Always
    4. Never
  42. Q42. Section 5 of Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 provides for
    1. Right to mehr
    2. Option to be governed by Sections 125-128 CrPC
    3. Right to maintenance from husband's relatives
    4. Inheritance
  43. Q43. Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (1995) held that
    1. Conversion to Islam dissolves the first Hindu marriage
    2. Conversion does not dissolve first marriage; second marriage during subsistence is bigamy
    3. Personal laws prevail
    4. None of these
  44. Q44. Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 lays down
    1. Conditions of marriage
    2. Ceremonies of Hindu marriage
    3. Restitution of conjugal rights
    4. Divorce
  45. Q45. Under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the natural guardian of an unmarried Hindu minor girl is
    1. Father, then mother
    2. Mother, then father
    3. Father always
    4. Mother always
  46. Q46. Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 defines a
    1. Sale
    2. Mortgage
    3. Lease
    4. Gift
  47. Q47. Associated Hotels of India v. R. N. Kapoor (1959) is a leading case distinguishing
    1. Sale and gift
    2. Lease and licence
    3. Mortgage and lease
    4. Trust and gift
  48. Q48. Section 122 of the TPA defines a
    1. Sale
    2. Lease
    3. Gift
    4. Mortgage
  49. Q49. The seat of the Supreme Court of India is in which constitutional provision?
    1. Article 124
    2. Article 130
    3. Article 142
    4. Article 226
  50. Q50. "Audi alteram partem" is a principle of
    1. Constitutional supremacy
    2. Natural justice (right to be heard)
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Strict construction

Report

Harassment or bullying behavior
Contains mature or sensitive content
Contains misleading or false information
Contains abusive or derogatory content
Contains spam, fake content or potential malware

Block Member?

Please confirm you want to block this member.

You will no longer be able to:

  • See blocked member's posts
  • Mention this member in posts
  • Invite this member to groups
  • Message this member
  • Add this member as a connection

Please note: This action will also remove this member from your connections and send a report to the site admin. Please allow a few minutes for this process to complete.

Report

You have already reported this .