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Daily MCQ Paper — 23 March 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 23 March 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. Article 32, characterised by Dr. Ambedkar as the "heart and soul" of the Constitution, deals with?
    1. Right to constitutional remedies before SC
    2. Fundamental duties
    3. Directive Principles
    4. Amendment procedure
  2. Q2. Sub-Committee on Judicial Accountability v. Union of India (1991) addressed?
    1. Removal of judges and the Judges (Inquiry) Act
    2. Anticipatory bail
    3. Reservation
    4. Article 356
  3. Q3. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997) decided which 7-judge bench question?
    1. Tribunals under Articles 323A/323B cannot oust High Court judicial review
    2. Right to property is a fundamental right
    3. Article 21 includes privacy
    4. Reservation cap is 50%
  4. Q4. Romila Thapar v. Union of India (2018) involved which arrests?
    1. Bhima Koregaon UAPA arrests of activists
    2. Anti-CAA protestors
    3. Section 66A users
    4. Sedition under 124A
  5. Q5. Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) reinforced which doctrine?
    1. Basic structure / harmony of FRs and DPSPs
    2. Right to privacy
    3. Free speech absolute
    4. Reservation cap
  6. Q6. Anti-defection law is in which Schedule of the Constitution?
    1. Tenth Schedule
    2. Eighth Schedule
    3. Sixth Schedule
    4. Twelfth Schedule
  7. Q7. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) expanded which Article?
    1. Article 21
    2. Article 14 only
    3. Article 19 only
    4. Article 32
  8. Q8. Doctrine of basic structure was first laid down in?
    1. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
    2. Golaknath (1967)
    3. Minerva Mills (1980)
    4. Indira Nehru Gandhi (1975)
  9. Q9. Article 226 conferring writ jurisdiction on High Courts is wider than Article 32 because?
    1. It covers fundamental rights AND other legal rights
    2. It is narrower
    3. It applies only to FRs
    4. Only SC has it
  10. Q10. Article 356 (President's Rule) judicial review parameters were laid down in?
    1. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)
    2. State of Rajasthan (1977)
    3. Naga People's Movement
    4. Manoj Narula
  11. Q11. Apparel Export Promotion Council v. A.K. Chopra (1999) held that?
    1. A single act can constitute sexual harassment at workplace
    2. Multiple acts are required
    3. Verbal acts excluded
    4. Only physical contact qualifies
  12. Q12. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997) guidelines were enacted as which legislation in 2013?
    1. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013
    2. Domestic Violence Act 2005
    3. POCSO 2012
    4. Indecent Representation Act
  13. Q13. BNS Section 75 corresponds to which IPC section on sexual harassment?
    1. Section 354A IPC
    2. Section 375 IPC
    3. Section 376 IPC
    4. Section 509 IPC
  14. Q14. Stalking under BNS is in which section?
    1. Section 78
    2. Section 354D IPC equivalent
    3. Section 75
    4. Section 70
  15. Q15. Vicarious "publishing" of obscene material online attracts which provision?
    1. Section 67 IT Act 2000
    2. IPC 292 only
    3. POCSO
    4. BNS 79 only
  16. Q16. Voyeurism under BNS is in which section?
    1. Section 77
    2. Section 78
    3. Section 75
    4. Section 354C IPC
  17. Q17. Acid attack offence under BNS is in?
    1. Section 124
    2. Section 326A IPC
    3. Section 326B IPC
    4. Section 100
  18. Q18. Murder under BNS is in section?
    1. Section 103
    2. Section 302 IPC
    3. Section 100
    4. Section 105
  19. Q19. Mens rea is generally encapsulated in IPC by which Latin maxim?
    1. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea
    2. Actus reus only
    3. Mens rea sine actu
    4. Volenti non fit injuria
  20. Q20. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder under BNS is in?
    1. Section 105
    2. Section 103
    3. Section 100
    4. Section 304 IPC
  21. Q21. Default bail under CrPC 167(2) is now under which BNSS section?
    1. Section 187 BNSS
    2. Section 482 BNSS
    3. Section 173 BNSS
    4. Section 100 BNSS
  22. Q22. Anticipatory bail provision in BNSS corresponds to which old CrPC section?
    1. 438 CrPC
    2. 437 CrPC
    3. 167 CrPC
    4. 436 CrPC
  23. Q23. First Information Report (FIR) under BNSS is dealt with in?
    1. Section 173 BNSS
    2. Section 154 CrPC
    3. Section 482 BNSS
    4. Section 200 BNSS
  24. Q24. Magistrate's power to take cognizance of offence is under?
    1. BNSS Section 210 (CrPC 190)
    2. BNSS Section 482
    3. BNSS Section 154
    4. BNSS Section 100
  25. Q25. Search warrant under CrPC 93 is now under which BNSS section?
    1. Section 96 BNSS
    2. Section 173 BNSS
    3. Section 482 BNSS
    4. Section 100 BNSS
  26. Q26. Plea bargaining was introduced into CrPC by which amendment?
    1. 2005 Amendment (Chapter XXI-A)
    2. 1973 enactment
    3. 1989 amendment
    4. 2013 amendment
  27. Q27. Section 482 CrPC inherent powers of HC is now BNSS?
    1. Section 528
    2. Section 482 retained
    3. Section 173
    4. Section 187
  28. Q28. Difference between admission and confession under BSA?
    1. Confession admits guilt; admission may be partial/general
    2. They are identical
    3. Confession is in writing only
    4. Admission is only oral
  29. Q29. Discovery confession under BSA Section 27 admits?
    1. Only that part leading to discovery of fact
    2. Entire confession
    3. None of confession
    4. Confession to magistrate
  30. Q30. Dying declaration under BSA is in which section?
    1. Section 26
    2. Section 32 IEA
    3. Section 60
    4. Section 17
  31. Q31. Confession to police is generally inadmissible under?
    1. Section 23 BSA / Section 25 IEA
    2. Section 17 BSA
    3. Section 60 BSA
    4. Section 100 BSA
  32. Q32. Hearsay evidence is generally?
    1. Inadmissible (with exceptions)
    2. Always admissible
    3. Stronger than direct
    4. Equal to direct
  33. Q33. Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (1913) established that?
    1. Knowledge of offer is essential for acceptance
    2. Mental acceptance suffices
    3. Past consideration always valid
    4. Promissory estoppel doctrine
  34. Q34. "Past consideration is no consideration" — exception in Indian Contract Act?
    1. Section 25(2) — past voluntary services
    2. Section 23
    3. Section 56
    4. Section 73
  35. Q35. Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903) held?
    1. Minor's contract is void ab initio
    2. Voidable at minor's option
    3. Valid until repudiated
    4. Enforceable with guardian
  36. Q36. Doctrine of Frustration is contained in?
    1. Section 56 ICA
    2. Section 23 ICA
    3. Section 73 ICA
    4. Section 65 ICA
  37. Q37. Damages for breach under Section 73 ICA are governed by?
    1. Hadley v. Baxendale rule
    2. Carlill principle
    3. Lalman rule
    4. Mohori rule
  38. Q38. Donoghue v. Stevenson (1932) established?
    1. Neighbour principle / duty of care in negligence
    2. Strict liability
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Volenti non fit
  39. Q39. Strict liability rule was laid down in?
    1. Rylands v. Fletcher (1868)
    2. Donoghue v. Stevenson
    3. MC Mehta
    4. Bolam
  40. Q40. Volenti non fit injuria is a defence based on?
    1. Consent of plaintiff
    2. Statutory authority
    3. Inevitable accident
    4. Necessity
  41. Q41. Absolute liability (no exceptions) was laid down by SC in?
    1. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987) — Oleum Gas Leak
    2. Rylands v. Fletcher
    3. Donoghue
    4. Bhopal Gas case alone
  42. Q42. Mutual consent divorce under HMA is under section?
    1. 13B
    2. 13(1)(ia)
    3. 9
    4. 11
  43. Q43. Section 13(1)(ia) of HMA, 1955 deals with which ground for divorce?
    1. Cruelty
    2. Adultery
    3. Desertion
    4. Insanity
  44. Q44. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to?
    1. Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, Sikhs
    2. All Indians
    3. Christians
    4. Muslims
  45. Q45. Triple talaq instant (talaq-e-biddat) was held unconstitutional in?
    1. Shayara Bano v. UoI (2017)
    2. Mohd. Ahmed Khan (Shah Bano) 1985
    3. Danial Latifi 2001
    4. Sarla Mudgal
  46. Q46. Specific Relief Act Section 5 deals with?
    1. Recovery of specific immovable property based on title
    2. Recovery based on possession
    3. Injunctions
    4. Specific performance of contracts
  47. Q47. Specific Relief Act Section 6 (suit by dispossessed) must be filed within?
    1. 6 months of dispossession
    2. 1 year
    3. 3 years
    4. 12 years
  48. Q48. Salmond's definition of "ownership" includes?
    1. Right to use, possess, exclude, alienate, destroy
    2. Only physical possession
    3. Only legal title
    4. Tenancy only
  49. Q49. World Water Day is observed on?
    1. 22 March
    2. 5 June
    3. 21 March
    4. 22 April
  50. Q50. Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were hanged on?
    1. 23 March 1931
    2. 15 August 1947
    3. 26 January 1950
    4. 30 January 1948

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