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Daily MCQ Paper — 24 March 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 24 March 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala (1973) is the seminal case on?
    1. Basic Structure doctrine
    2. Right to Property
    3. Anti-defection
    4. Reservation
  2. Q2. The Kesavananda Bharati judgment was delivered by a bench of?
    1. 13 judges
    2. 11 judges
    3. 9 judges
    4. 7 judges
  3. Q3. IR Coelho v State of Tamil Nadu (2007) held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after?
    1. 24 April 1973 are open to judicial review on basic structure
    2. 1950 are immune
    3. 1976 are immune
    4. Never
  4. Q4. Waman Rao v Union of India (1981) confirmed which line on basic structure?
    1. Laws inserted in 9th Schedule before 24-04-1973 are protected; after, reviewable
    2. 9th Schedule is fully immune
    3. 9th Schedule is unconstitutional
    4. 9th Schedule applies only to land
  5. Q5. The 24th, 25th, 26th and 29th Amendments were challenged in?
    1. Kesavananda Bharati case
    2. Golak Nath case
    3. Minerva Mills case
    4. Indira Sawhney
  6. Q6. Indira Nehru Gandhi v Raj Narain (1975) struck down which constitutional amendment as violative of basic structure?
    1. 39th Amendment (clause validating PM's election)
    2. 42nd Amendment
    3. 44th Amendment
    4. 38th Amendment
  7. Q7. Minerva Mills v Union of India (1980) struck down which clauses of the 42nd Amendment?
    1. Sections 4 and 55 (Articles 31C and 368(4)/(5))
    2. Section 3
    3. Section 7
    4. Section 1
  8. Q8. SR Bommai v Union of India (1994) is significant for?
    1. Limits on Article 356 President's Rule
    2. Anti-defection
    3. EWS reservation
    4. Tax federalism
  9. Q9. Vishaka v State of Rajasthan (1997) framed guidelines on?
    1. Sexual harassment of women at workplace
    2. Custodial violence
    3. Privacy
    4. Bonded labour
  10. Q10. Maneka Gandhi v Union of India (1978) read into Article 21 the requirement that procedure be?
    1. Just, fair and reasonable
    2. Statutory only
    3. Determined by Parliament alone
    4. Per executive direction
  11. Q11. Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 deals with?
    1. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
    2. Murder
    3. Hurt
    4. Theft
  12. Q12. Section 106 BNS 2023 punishes?
    1. Causing death by negligence
    2. Voluntary culpable homicide
    3. Murder
    4. Wrongful restraint
  13. Q13. Section 109 BNS 2023 deals with?
    1. Attempt to murder
    2. Murder
    3. Abetment of suicide
    4. Wrongful confinement
  14. Q14. Section 110 BNS 2023 deals with?
    1. Attempt to commit culpable homicide
    2. Hurt
    3. Mischief
    4. Trespass
  15. Q15. Voluntarily causing hurt is defined in BNS 2023 under Section?
    1. 115
    2. 116
    3. 117
    4. 118
  16. Q16. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt is defined under BNS 2023 Section?
    1. 117
    2. 115
    3. 118
    4. 116
  17. Q17. Grievous hurt categories under BNS 2023 include?
    1. Emasculation, permanent privation of sight, permanent disfigurement of head/face
    2. Only fracture
    3. Only hospital admission for 7 days
    4. Only mental injury
  18. Q18. Section 351 BNS 2023 corresponds to IPC?
    1. 503 (criminal intimidation)
    2. 354 (assault on woman)
    3. 420 (cheating)
    4. 302 (murder)
  19. Q19. Mob lynching as a separate offence is created under?
    1. BNS 103(2)
    2. BNS 105
    3. BNS 109
    4. IPC 302 only
  20. Q20. Sedition has been replaced under BNS 2023 by which provision?
    1. Section 152 — Acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
    2. Section 124A
    3. Section 153A
    4. Section 295A
  21. Q21. BNSS 2023 replaces?
    1. CrPC 1973
    2. IPC 1860
    3. Indian Evidence Act
    4. POCSO 2012
  22. Q22. BNSS 2023 came into force on?
    1. 1 July 2024
    2. 15 August 2023
    3. 26 January 2024
    4. 1 January 2025
  23. Q23. Time limit for completion of trial of certain offences under BNSS is?
    1. Mandatory delivery of judgment within 45 days of completion of arguments
    2. One year
    3. Six months
    4. No timeline
  24. Q24. BNSS introduces electronic FIR (e-FIR) under section?
    1. 173 (FIR for cognizable offences)
    2. 161
    3. 164
    4. 82
  25. Q25. Trial in absentia of declared proclaimed offenders is permitted under BNSS Section?
    1. 356
    2. 82
    3. 299
    4. 144
  26. Q26. Use of electronic communication for summons and warrants is permitted under BNSS Section?
    1. 64 (service of summons)
    2. 41
    3. 161
    4. 174
  27. Q27. Mercy petition timelines for convicts under death sentence are introduced in BNSS Section?
    1. 472
    2. 354
    3. 73
    4. 82
  28. Q28. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 replaces?
    1. Indian Evidence Act 1872
    2. CrPC 1973
    3. IPC 1860
    4. Contract Act
  29. Q29. Section 26 BSA 2023 deals with?
    1. Confession by accused while in police custody (admissibility)
    2. Hostile witness
    3. Expert opinion
    4. Burden of proof
  30. Q30. Dying declaration under BSA 2023 is dealt with in Section?
    1. 26 / 32 equivalents
    2. 26
    3. 32
    4. 138
  31. Q31. Joint trials and admissions principle in BSA 2023 corresponds to IEA Section 17 covered under BSA?
    1. Section 15
    2. Section 11
    3. Section 30
    4. Section 60
  32. Q32. Electronic records as primary evidence are recognised under BSA Section?
    1. 61
    2. 62
    3. 65B
    4. 3
  33. Q33. Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 lays down?
    1. What agreements are contracts
    2. Definition of consideration
    3. Free consent
    4. Frustration
  34. Q34. Sections 13 and 14 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 deal with?
    1. Consent and free consent
    2. Capacity
    3. Acceptance
    4. Quantum meruit
  35. Q35. Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 deals with?
    1. Capacity to contract
    2. Free consent
    3. Consideration
    4. Performance
  36. Q36. Lalman Shukla v Gauri Datt (1913) is an authority on?
    1. Communication of offer is essential for acceptance
    2. Capacity
    3. Past consideration
    4. Frustration
  37. Q37. Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose (1903) held that an agreement with a minor is?
    1. Void ab initio
    2. Voidable at minor's option
    3. Valid until rescinded
    4. Voidable at adult's option
  38. Q38. The "thin skull" rule provides that?
    1. Defendant takes the victim as he finds him
    2. Defendant pays only foreseeable damages
    3. Plaintiff bears own injury
    4. No remedy for psychiatric harm
  39. Q39. Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) established?
    1. Modern law of negligence and neighbour principle
    2. Strict liability
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Defamation
  40. Q40. Vicarious liability in tort means?
    1. Liability of principal for acts of agent/servant in course of employment
    2. Personal liability only
    3. Joint liability
    4. Liability for own acts only
  41. Q41. Rylands v Fletcher (1868) is the rule on?
    1. Strict liability for escape of dangerous things
    2. Negligence
    3. Defamation
    4. Conversion
  42. Q42. The Hindu Marriage Act 1955 applies to?
    1. Hindus, Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs
    2. Christians
    3. Muslims
    4. Parsis
  43. Q43. Divorce on grounds of mutual consent is provided under?
    1. Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955
    2. Section 13
    3. Section 5
    4. Section 24
  44. Q44. Conditions of a Hindu marriage are laid down in?
    1. Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955
    2. Section 13
    3. Section 24
    4. Section 27
  45. Q45. The Special Marriage Act 1954 enables marriage between?
    1. Persons regardless of religion
    2. Hindus only
    3. Muslims only
    4. Christians only
  46. Q46. Section 7 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 deals with?
    1. Persons competent to transfer
    2. Sale
    3. Lease
    4. Gift
  47. Q47. Specific performance of a contract under SRA 1963 (post-2018 amendment) is?
    1. A general rule, not exceptional
    2. Discretionary always
    3. Available only for sale of land
    4. Available only when damages refused
  48. Q48. The Specific Relief Act 1963 was amended substantially in?
    1. 2018
    2. 1963
    3. 1995
    4. 2008
  49. Q49. Translate to English: "Cogito, ergo sum."
    1. I think, therefore I am
    2. By the very fact
    3. Let the buyer beware
    4. Master of the case
  50. Q50. "Caveat emptor" is a legal maxim meaning?
    1. Let the buyer beware
    2. Seller beware
    3. Without prejudice
    4. Master of the case

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