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Daily MCQ Paper — 25 April 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 25 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. State of Madras v Champakam Dorairajan (1951) led to which constitutional amendment?
    1. 1st
    2. 2nd
    3. 3rd
    4. 4th
  2. Q2. Sankari Prasad v Union of India (1951) held that
    1. FRs cannot be amended
    2. Parliament can amend FRs under Article 368
    3. Only judiciary can change FRs
    4. State legislatures can amend FRs
  3. Q3. Romesh Thapar v State of Madras (1950) protected
    1. Right to property
    2. Freedom of speech and press
    3. Right to vote
    4. Right to travel
  4. Q4. Tukaram v State of Maharashtra (1979) — the Mathura case — exposed gaps in
    1. Murder law
    2. Custodial rape jurisprudence
    3. Dowry law
    4. Habeas corpus
  5. Q5. Sajjan Singh v State of Rajasthan (1965) reaffirmed
    1. Champakam
    2. Sankari Prasad on amending power
    3. Golak Nath
    4. Bommai
  6. Q6. Mukesh v State (NCT of Delhi) (2017) is popularly known as
    1. Aruna Shanbaug
    2. Nirbhaya
    3. Bhanwari Devi
    4. Mathura
  7. Q7. Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v Union of India (2011) addressed
    1. Active euthanasia
    2. Passive euthanasia and PVS
    3. Living will
    4. Capital punishment
  8. Q8. Common Cause v Union of India (2018) recognised
    1. Right to die actively
    2. Living will and passive euthanasia
    3. Right to be forgotten
    4. Right to internet
  9. Q9. Maneka Gandhi v Union of India (1978) revolutionised interpretation of Article
    1. 14
    2. 19
    3. 21
    4. 32
  10. Q10. M.C. Mehta v Union of India (1986) introduced
    1. Polluter Pays principle
    2. Absolute liability
    3. Public Trust
    4. All of these in subsequent rulings
  11. Q11. Rioting under BNS is defined under Section
    1. 190
    2. 191
    3. 192
    4. 194
  12. Q12. Gang rape under BNS is dealt with under Section
    1. 69
    2. 70
    3. 71
    4. 72
  13. Q13. BNS Section 66 deals with
    1. Rape causing death or persistent vegetative state
    2. Marital rape
    3. Statutory rape
    4. Gang rape
  14. Q14. Section 64 of BNS punishes
    1. Theft
    2. Rape
    3. Cheating
    4. Criminal trespass
  15. Q15. Attempt to commit suicide is now dealt with under
    1. BNS Section 124
    2. BNS Section 309
    3. BNS Section 174
    4. Mental Healthcare Act 2017 (presumption of stress)
  16. Q16. Unlawful assembly under BNS Section 189 must consist of at least
    1. 3 persons
    2. 5 persons
    3. 7 persons
    4. 10 persons
  17. Q17. Under BNS Section 65, rape on a woman under 16 carries minimum
    1. 7 years
    2. 10 years
    3. 20 years rigorous imprisonment
    4. 5 years
  18. Q18. Punishment for rioting under BNS Section 191(2) is up to
    1. 1 year
    2. 2 years
    3. 3 years
    4. 5 years
  19. Q19. Affray under BNS is defined under Section
    1. 194
    2. 295
    3. 299
    4. 118
  20. Q20. BNS Section 152 deals with
    1. Sedition replacement
    2. Acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
    3. Treason
    4. Waging war
  21. Q21. Appeal from order of conviction by High Court (Sessions) lies to
    1. District Court
    2. Supreme Court
    3. Full Bench HC
    4. Tribunal
  22. Q22. Search warrant in BNSS is governed by Section
    1. 94
    2. 96
    3. 97
    4. 185
  23. Q23. BNSS Section 47 corresponds to CrPC provisions on
    1. Search of place
    2. Search by police officer
    3. Search of arrested person
    4. Search warrants
  24. Q24. Charge sheet (police report) under BNSS is filed under Section
    1. 173
    2. 193
    3. 194
    4. 206
  25. Q25. Charge in a criminal trial must contain
    1. Offence with section
    2. Particulars of time, place, person
    3. Facts giving substance
    4. All of the above
  26. Q26. Joinder of charges in BNSS allows trying together up to how many offences of same kind committed within a year?
    1. 3
    2. 5
    3. Twelve months — any number
    4. 7
  27. Q27. BNSS Section 419 corresponds broadly to
    1. Appeals to Sessions Court
    2. Appeals to Supreme Court
    3. Appeals to High Court
    4. Appeal against acquittal
  28. Q28. Exception to direct oral evidence rule includes
    1. Opinion of expert
    2. Hearsay always
    3. Confession of accused
    4. Government records
  29. Q29. Oral evidence under BSA must be
    1. Hearsay allowed
    2. Direct
    3. Documentary first
    4. From government source
  30. Q30. "Proved" under BSA Section 2(g) means
    1. Mathematically certain
    2. So probable that prudent man would act on the supposition
    3. Beyond all doubt
    4. Admitted
  31. Q31. "Disproved" requires the court to believe
    1. It does not exist or its non-existence is so probable
    2. It is impossible
    3. It is improbable beyond doubt
    4. It is unproven
  32. Q32. Documents must be proved either by
    1. Primary or secondary evidence
    2. Oral evidence only
    3. Affidavit only
    4. Confession
  33. Q33. Indemnity is defined under Section
    1. 124 ICA
    2. 125 ICA
    3. 126 ICA
    4. 148 ICA
  34. Q34. In a guarantee, the surety is
    1. Primarily liable
    2. Secondarily/co-extensively liable with principal debtor
    3. Not liable
    4. Liable only after court decree
  35. Q35. Guarantee is defined under Section
    1. 124
    2. 126
    3. 148
    4. 172
  36. Q36. Bailment is defined under Section
    1. 148 ICA
    2. 152 ICA
    3. 172 ICA
    4. 182 ICA
  37. Q37. An agency under ICA Section 182 is created when one person
    1. Sells goods
    2. Acts on behalf of another with their consent
    3. Borrows money
    4. Witnesses an agreement
  38. Q38. Strict liability principle was laid down in
    1. Donoghue v Stevenson
    2. Rylands v Fletcher
    3. Ashby v White
    4. Bolton v Stone
  39. Q39. Vicarious liability of master for servant's act requires the act to be
    1. Beyond scope of employment
    2. In course of employment
    3. Authorised by master only
    4. Negligent only
  40. Q40. Absolute liability in India was evolved in
    1. M.C. Mehta v Union of India (Oleum gas)
    2. Vellore Citizens
    3. Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action
    4. Subhash Kumar
  41. Q41. Defamation in tort consists of
    1. Libel only
    2. Slander only
    3. Both libel (written) and slander (spoken)
    4. Innuendo only
  42. Q42. Permanent alimony and maintenance are dealt with under HMA Section
    1. 24
    2. 25
    3. 26
    4. 27
  43. Q43. Maintenance pendente lite is provided under HMA Section
    1. 24
    2. 25
    3. 26
    4. 27
  44. Q44. HMA Section 27 deals with
    1. Custody
    2. Disposal of joint property/gifts
    3. Appeals
    4. Maintenance
  45. Q45. Custody of minor children in matrimonial proceedings is governed by HMA Section
    1. 25
    2. 26
    3. 27
    4. 28
  46. Q46. Doctrine of part-performance is codified in TPA Section
    1. 53A
    2. 54
    3. 55
    4. 56
  47. Q47. TPA Section 58 enumerates
    1. Sale
    2. Six types of mortgages
    3. Lease
    4. Exchange
  48. Q48. "Equitable mortgage" by deposit of title deeds is also known as
    1. English mortgage
    2. Mortgage by conditional sale
    3. Mortgage in Calcutta/Mumbai/Chennai (notified towns)
    4. Anomalous mortgage
  49. Q49. "Audi alteram partem" is a principle of
    1. Estoppel
    2. Natural justice — hear the other side
    3. Res judicata
    4. Lis pendens
  50. Q50. "Habeas Corpus" literally means
    1. You should produce the body
    2. Show cause
    3. Have the will
    4. By the law

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