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Daily MCQ Paper — 24 April 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 24 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975) was significant for
    1. Holding 39th Amendment's clause 4 unconstitutional
    2. Validating internal Emergency
    3. Striking down NJAC
    4. Recognising Right to Privacy
  2. Q2. Waman Rao v Union of India (1981) clarified that
    1. Ninth Schedule entries before 24 April 1973 are immune
    2. All Ninth Schedule entries are immune
    3. No Ninth Schedule immunity
    4. Only post-1980 entries are immune
  3. Q3. Minerva Mills v Union of India (1980) struck down which clauses of the 42nd Amendment?
    1. Sections 4 and 55
    2. Section 4 (Article 31C) and Section 55 (Articles 368(4)-(5))
    3. Section 1 only
    4. Section 28 only
  4. Q4. The 2018 Amendment to the SC/ST Act inserted Section
    1. 18A
    2. 17C
    3. 22B
    4. 15A
  5. Q5. ITC Ltd v Agricultural Produce Market Committee (2002) is significant for
    1. GST rulings
    2. Interpretation of "free trade and commerce" under Article 301
    3. Reservation in promotion
    4. Education as fundamental right
  6. Q6. "Constitutional morality" was emphasised in
    1. Naz Foundation
    2. Navtej Singh Johar v UoI
    3. Both A and B
    4. Only A
  7. Q7. State of West Bengal v Union of India (1962) held that
    1. States are sovereign
    2. Indian federation is not a "compact" of sovereign states
    3. Centre cannot acquire state property
    4. Article 356 is illegal
  8. Q8. Article 226 differs from Article 32 primarily in that
    1. 226 is fundamental, 32 is statutory
    2. 226 is a wider remedy available against any person for any legal right
    3. Both are identical
    4. 32 is wider in scope
  9. Q9. Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v State of Maharashtra (2018) led to a controversy over
    1. SC/ST Act dilution by SC
    2. Reservation in promotions
    3. Article 370
    4. Aadhaar
  10. Q10. Article 32 was termed by Dr. Ambedkar as
    1. The most peripheral article
    2. The heart and soul of the Constitution
    3. A redundant article
    4. A directive principle
  11. Q11. "Theft" under BNS 2023 is defined in Section
    1. 303
    2. 305
    3. 311
    4. 315
  12. Q12. "Theft in a dwelling-house" under BNS is in Section
    1. 304
    2. 305
    3. 306
    4. 309
  13. Q13. Punishment for theft under BNS Section 303(2) is
    1. Up to 1 year
    2. Up to 3 years
    3. Up to 5 years
    4. Up to 7 years
  14. Q14. Punishment for dacoity is up to
    1. 7 years RI
    2. 10 years RI
    3. Life imprisonment
    4. Death sentence only
  15. Q15. "Dacoity" under BNS requires
    1. 3 or more persons
    2. 5 or more persons
    3. 2 persons
    4. 10 persons
  16. Q16. "Robbery" is theft or extortion accompanied by
    1. Force or threat
    2. Trespass
    3. Criminal breach of trust
    4. Cheating
  17. Q17. "Extortion" under BNS Section 308 requires
    1. Use of weapon
    2. Putting any person in fear of injury and dishonestly inducing delivery
    3. Trespass
    4. Forgery
  18. Q18. "Criminal trespass" under BNS Section 329 requires entry with intent to
    1. Cause harm
    2. Commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy
    3. Steal only
    4. Damage property only
  19. Q19. "House-trespass" under BNS is criminal trespass into
    1. Any place
    2. Any building, tent or vessel used as a dwelling/place of worship/property custody
    3. Government buildings only
    4. Banks only
  20. Q20. "Mischief" under BNS Section 324 requires
    1. Wrongful loss or damage to property
    2. Theft
    3. Trespass
    4. Cheating
  21. Q21. BNSS provides for "Zero FIR" registration
    1. In a separate section
    2. Through Section 173 / 175 with mandate that no jurisdiction objection is allowed
    3. Only by court order
    4. Only in cognizable cases
  22. Q22. BNSS Section 18 deals with
    1. Powers of police
    2. Sentences which Magistrates may pass
    3. Bail
    4. Arrest
  23. Q23. BNSS 2023 General Powers of Magistrate are in Sections
    1. 4-5
    2. 15-25
    3. 41-43
    4. 125-130
  24. Q24. Time limit for filing chargesheet under BNSS for offence punishable up to 10 years is
    1. 60 days
    2. 90 days
    3. 180 days
    4. 120 days
  25. Q25. Appeals from convictions in High Court (sentence > 7 years) to Supreme Court lie under
    1. Article 132
    2. Article 134
    3. Section 415 BNSS
    4. Both B and C
  26. Q26. BNSS Section 414 corresponds to CrPC Section
    1. 377
    2. 378
    3. 386
    4. 389
  27. Q27. Revision powers of HC and Sessions Courts are in BNSS Sections
    1. 438-442
    2. 438-442 (≈ CrPC 397-401)
    3. 421-426
    4. 125-130
  28. Q28. "Presumption" in BSA distinguishes between
    1. Rebuttable and irrebuttable
    2. May presume / shall presume / conclusive proof
    3. Direct and indirect
    4. Civil and criminal
  29. Q29. BSA Section 80 (presumptions) corresponds to IEA Section
    1. 79
    2. 80
    3. 85
    4. 86
  30. Q30. "Shall presume" requires the court to
    1. Disregard the fact
    2. Regard the fact as proved unless and until disproved
    3. Always treat as conclusive
    4. Recall it
  31. Q31. "May presume" gives the court
    1. No discretion
    2. Discretion to presume or call for proof
    3. Mandatory presumption
    4. Conclusive presumption
  32. Q32. "Conclusive proof" is
    1. Rebuttable
    2. Treated as proved and no contrary evidence is admissible
    3. Discretionary
    4. Presumed only in civil cases
  33. Q33. Lalman Shukla v Gauri Dutt (1913) is authority for the proposition that
    1. Acceptance must be communicated
    2. Knowledge of offer is necessary for acceptance
    3. Past consideration is good
    4. Standard form contracts are valid
  34. Q34. "An agreement enforceable by law is a contract" — this definition is in Section
    1. 2(b)
    2. 2(g)
    3. 2(h)
    4. 10
  35. Q35. Coercion is defined under Indian Contract Act Section
    1. 15
    2. 16
    3. 17
    4. 18
  36. Q36. "Undue influence" under Section 16 requires that
    1. One party uses physical force
    2. One party is in a position to dominate the will of the other and uses it to obtain unfair advantage
    3. One party is wealthier
    4. Misrepresentation is shown
  37. Q37. "Mistake of fact" by both parties in a contract is dealt with under Section
    1. 19
    2. 20
    3. 21
    4. 22
  38. Q38. "Vicarious liability" of master for tort of servant requires
    1. Servant acted in course of employment
    2. Master's express authority
    3. Servant's independent act
    4. Statute
  39. Q39. "Tort" is best described as
    1. Statutory wrong
    2. Civil wrong remediable by unliquidated damages
    3. Criminal wrong
    4. Equitable wrong
  40. Q40. Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) is the foundation of
    1. Strict liability
    2. Modern law of negligence — neighbour principle
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Defamation
  41. Q41. Rylands v Fletcher (1868) established the doctrine of
    1. Negligence
    2. Strict liability for non-natural use of land
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Volenti
  42. Q42. Voidable marriages under Hindu Marriage Act are governed by Section
    1. 5
    2. 11
    3. 12
    4. 13
  43. Q43. Time-limit to seek annulment for fraud / force under Section 12(2)(a) HMA is
    1. 6 months
    2. 1 year
    3. 3 years
    4. No limit
  44. Q44. Maintenance for wife under Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act 1956 is governed by Section
    1. 18
    2. 19
    3. 20
    4. 21
  45. Q45. Hindu Succession Act Section 6 (as amended 2005) provides that
    1. Daughters get coparcenary rights by birth, equal to sons
    2. Daughters get rights only on intestate succession
    3. Daughters get only stridhan
    4. No change from 1956
  46. Q46. Acceptance of a gift under TPA Section 122 must be made
    1. Before donor's death
    2. While donor is still alive and capable of giving
    3. Within 1 year
    4. Anytime
  47. Q47. "Gift" under Transfer of Property Act is defined in Section
    1. 105
    2. 118
    3. 122
    4. 130
  48. Q48. Mode of transfer of immovable property by gift requires
    1. Oral declaration
    2. Registered instrument signed by donor and attested by 2 witnesses
    3. Notarised deed
    4. Stamp paper alone
  49. Q49. The first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India was
    1. Justice Leila Seth
    2. Justice Fathima Beevi
    3. Justice Sujata Manohar
    4. Justice Ruma Pal
  50. Q50. The CJI of India as of May 2025 is
    1. D Y Chandrachud
    2. Sanjiv Khanna
    3. B R Gavai
    4. J B Pardiwala