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Daily MCQ Paper — 27 March 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 27 March 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. Kihoto Hollohan v Zachillhu (1992) decided?
    1. Speaker decision under 10th Schedule is judicially reviewable
    2. Anti-defection law unconstitutional
    3. Speakers immune from review
    4. Tenth Schedule must be repealed
  2. Q2. Olga Tellis v BMC (1985) recognised?
    1. Right to livelihood as part of Article 21
    2. Right to food
    3. Right to internet
    4. Right to property
  3. Q3. Vishakha v State of Rajasthan (1997) led to?
    1. Guidelines on workplace sexual harassment
    2. Privacy as fundamental right
    3. Triple talaq invalidation
    4. LGBTQ rights
  4. Q4. Indra Sawhney v Union of India (1992) is also called?
    1. Mandal Commission case
    2. Habeas corpus case
    3. Bank nationalisation case
    4. Privy purses case
  5. Q5. The basic structure doctrine was laid in?
    1. Kesavananda Bharati 1973
    2. Golak Nath 1967
    3. Minerva Mills 1980
    4. Indira Gandhi v Raj Narain 1975
  6. Q6. Article 32 is referred to by Dr Ambedkar as?
    1. Heart and soul of the Constitution
    2. Spirit of federalism
    3. Crown of fundamental rights
    4. Soul of democracy
  7. Q7. Maneka Gandhi v UoI (1978) held that procedure under Article 21 must be?
    1. Fair, just and reasonable
    2. Merely lawful
    3. Approved by Cabinet
    4. Approved by Parliament
  8. Q8. Article 226 empowers?
    1. High Courts to issue writs
    2. Supreme Court to issue writs
    3. Parliament to legislate
    4. President to issue writs
  9. Q9. Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees?
    1. Protection of life and personal liberty
    2. Equality
    3. Freedom of speech
    4. Right to property
  10. Q10. Doctrine of pith and substance is used to test?
    1. Legislative competence between Centre and State Lists
    2. Reservation policy
    3. Right to equality
    4. Tax federalism only
  11. Q11. BNS Section 79 corresponds to which IPC section on outraging modesty of woman?
    1. IPC 354
    2. IPC 376
    3. IPC 498A
    4. IPC 304B
  12. Q12. BNS Section 109 deals with?
    1. Attempt to murder
    2. Culpable homicide
    3. Theft
    4. Defamation
  13. Q13. BNS Section 110 deals with?
    1. Attempt to commit culpable homicide
    2. Murder
    3. Hurt
    4. Cheating
  14. Q14. BNS Section 76 corresponds to IPC?
    1. IPC 326A acid attack
    2. IPC 376 rape
    3. IPC 354 modesty
    4. IPC 304 culpable
  15. Q15. "Hurt" under BNS section equivalent to IPC 319 means?
    1. Bodily pain, disease or infirmity
    2. Permanent disfiguration
    3. Death
    4. Mental anguish only
  16. Q16. Grievous hurt under BNS s.116 (IPC 320) does NOT include?
    1. Slap on cheek
    2. Emasculation
    3. Permanent privation of sight
    4. Fracture
  17. Q17. Mens rea is described as?
    1. Guilty mind
    2. Guilty act
    3. Guilty omission
    4. Negligence
  18. Q18. Common intention is dealt with in?
    1. IPC 34 / BNS 3(5)
    2. IPC 149
    3. IPC 120A
    4. IPC 120B
  19. Q19. Common object is dealt with in?
    1. IPC 149
    2. IPC 34
    3. IPC 120A
    4. IPC 511
  20. Q20. Conspiracy is defined under?
    1. IPC 120A
    2. IPC 34
    3. IPC 149
    4. IPC 511
  21. Q21. BNSS replaces?
    1. CrPC 1973
    2. IPC 1860
    3. Indian Evidence Act
    4. IT Act
  22. Q22. Cognizable offence means?
    1. Police can arrest without warrant
    2. Magistrate must summon
    3. Bailable necessarily
    4. Compoundable
  23. Q23. Section 41A CrPC (now BNSS equivalent) provides for?
    1. Notice of appearance instead of arrest
    2. Anticipatory bail
    3. Default bail
    4. Magistrate inquiry
  24. Q24. Default bail right under CrPC s.167(2) (BNSS) accrues if charge-sheet not filed within?
    1. 60 / 90 days depending on punishment
    2. 30 days
    3. 15 days
    4. 120 days uniformly
  25. Q25. Anticipatory bail is governed by?
    1. Section 438 CrPC / BNSS s.482
    2. Section 437
    3. Section 439
    4. Section 167
  26. Q26. FIR must be registered for cognizable offence as per which case?
    1. Lalita Kumari v UP
    2. D.K. Basu
    3. Joginder Kumar
    4. Arnesh Kumar
  27. Q27. D.K. Basu guidelines pertain to?
    1. Arrest and detention procedure
    2. Bail conditions
    3. Custodial interrogation only
    4. Convict rehabilitation
  28. Q28. Confession to police officer is?
    1. Inadmissible (s.25 IEA / BSA)
    2. Admissible
    3. Conditionally admissible
    4. Mandatory
  29. Q29. BSA 2023 replaces?
    1. Indian Evidence Act 1872
    2. CrPC
    3. IPC
    4. Specific Relief Act
  30. Q30. Electronic record admissibility certificate is under?
    1. IEA s.65B / BSA s.63
    2. IEA s.27
    3. IEA s.65A only
    4. BSA s.4
  31. Q31. Res gestae is governed by which BSA section (IEA s.6)?
    1. BSA s.4
    2. BSA s.10
    3. BSA s.27
    4. BSA s.65B
  32. Q32. Section 27 IEA permits?
    1. So much of statement leading to discovery
    2. Full confession
    3. Hearsay
    4. Custodial silence
  33. Q33. Lalman Shukla v Gauri Dutt held that?
    1. Knowledge of offer is essential to acceptance
    2. Past consideration is no consideration
    3. Consideration must move from promisee
    4. Acceptance must be communicated
  34. Q34. Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose established?
    1. Minor agreement is void ab initio
    2. Minor agreement voidable
    3. Minor liable for necessaries only
    4. Minor is competent
  35. Q35. Coercion is defined under?
    1. Section 15
    2. Section 16
    3. Section 17
    4. Section 18
  36. Q36. Section 10 of Indian Contract Act lays down essentials of?
    1. Valid contract
    2. Void contract
    3. Quasi-contract
    4. Wagering agreement
  37. Q37. Quasi-contract is dealt with in Sections?
    1. 68-72 ICA
    2. 10-14
    3. 37-39
    4. 73-74
  38. Q38. M.C. Mehta v Union of India (Oleum Leak) introduced?
    1. Absolute liability
    2. Strict liability
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. No-fault
  39. Q39. Rylands v Fletcher (1868) established?
    1. Strict liability for non-natural use causing escape
    2. Absolute liability
    3. Negligence
    4. Vicarious liability
  40. Q40. Volenti non fit injuria means?
    1. Consent is no injury
    2. Greater wrong is no injury
    3. Plaintiff must prove negligence
    4. Damage without injury
  41. Q41. Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) established?
    1. Neighbour principle of duty of care
    2. Strict liability
    3. No-fault
    4. Volenti
  42. Q42. Iddat period in Muslim law for widow is?
    1. 4 months 10 days
    2. 3 months
    3. 6 months
    4. 1 year
  43. Q43. Special Marriage Act 1954 governs?
    1. Civil/inter-faith marriages
    2. Hindu marriages only
    3. Muslim marriages only
    4. Christian marriages only
  44. Q44. Hindu Marriage Act 1955 applies to?
    1. Hindus, Buddhists, Sikhs, Jains
    2. Hindus only
    3. Hindus and Christians
    4. All Indian citizens
  45. Q45. Section 125 CrPC (BNSS s.144) deals with?
    1. Maintenance of wives, children, parents
    2. Divorce
    3. Adoption
    4. Guardianship
  46. Q46. Specific Relief Amendment 2018 made specific performance?
    1. Rule rather than exception
    2. Exception rather than rule
    3. Discretionary as before
    4. Time-barred
  47. Q47. Doctrine of part performance is in?
    1. Section 53A TPA
    2. Section 5
    3. Section 41
    4. Section 11
  48. Q48. Section 5 of Transfer of Property Act defines?
    1. Transfer of property
    2. Sale
    3. Mortgage
    4. Lease
  49. Q49. "Habeas corpus" literally means?
    1. You may have the body
    2. You shall be heard
    3. Show the cause
    4. Bring the proof
  50. Q50. CJI Sanjiv Khanna assumed office in?
    1. November 2024
    2. May 2025
    3. March 2026
    4. August 2024