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Daily MCQ Paper — 28 March 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 28 March 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. Section 377 IPC was read down (consensual same-sex acts decriminalised) in
    1. Naz Foundation (2009 HC)
    2. Suresh Kumar Koushal (2013)
    3. Navtej Singh Johar (2018)
    4. Joseph Shine (2018)
  2. Q2. Right to Privacy was declared a fundamental right under Article 21 in
    1. Kharak Singh (1962)
    2. MP Sharma (1954)
    3. Puttaswamy I (2017)
    4. Puttaswamy II (2018)
  3. Q3. Aadhaar Act's passage as Money Bill was upheld in
    1. Puttaswamy I
    2. Puttaswamy II (Aadhaar)
    3. Rojer Mathew
    4. None
  4. Q4. Sabarimala temple women entry case was decided in
    1. 2017
    2. 2018
    3. 2019
    4. 2020
  5. Q5. Article 21 includes the right to die with dignity (passive euthanasia) per
    1. Aruna Shanbaug (2011)
    2. Common Cause (2018)
    3. Both
    4. Gian Kaur (1996)
  6. Q6. Triple Talaq (Talaq-e-Biddat) was held unconstitutional in
    1. Shayara Bano (2017)
    2. Shah Bano (1985)
    3. Danial Latifi (2001)
    4. Mohd Ahmed Khan
  7. Q7. Right to Education became a fundamental right via
    1. 86th Amendment
    2. 42nd Amendment
    3. 73rd Amendment
    4. 44th Amendment
  8. Q8. Doctrine of Basic Structure was propounded in
    1. Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
    2. Golak Nath (1967)
    3. Minerva Mills (1980)
    4. Shankari Prasad (1951)
  9. Q9. Article 14 (right to equality) classification test, requiring intelligible differentia and rational nexus, was laid down in
    1. State of West Bengal v Anwar Ali Sarkar 1952
    2. EP Royappa v State of TN 1974
    3. Maneka Gandhi 1978
    4. Indra Sawhney 1992
  10. Q10. Article 226 (writs by High Courts) is wider than Article 32 because
    1. It covers fundamental rights and any other legal right
    2. It is available only against the State
    3. It can be invoked only after exhausting alternative remedies
    4. It is non-justiciable
  11. Q11. Section 302 IPC (murder) corresponds in BNS to
    1. Sec 101
    2. Sec 103
    3. Sec 105
    4. Sec 100
  12. Q12. Mens rea means
    1. Guilty act
    2. Guilty mind
    3. Strict liability
    4. Vicarious liability
  13. Q13. Common intention vs common object: common intention is under IPC
    1. Section 34
    2. Section 149
    3. Section 120A
    4. Section 120B
  14. Q14. Robbery is defined under IPC
    1. Section 378
    2. Section 383
    3. Section 390
    4. Section 405
  15. Q15. Right of private defence of body is dealt under IPC
    1. Section 96-106
    2. Section 76-95
    3. Section 107-120
    4. Section 121-130
  16. Q16. BNS, 2023 replaced
    1. IPC 1860
    2. CrPC 1973
    3. Evidence Act 1872
    4. All three
  17. Q17. Theft is defined under IPC
    1. Section 378
    2. Section 383
    3. Section 390
    4. Section 405
  18. Q18. Criminal breach of trust is under IPC
    1. Section 405
    2. Section 415
    3. Section 425
    4. Section 463
  19. Q19. The offence of "sedition" under old IPC Section 124A has been
    1. Retained verbatim in BNS
    2. Replaced by Section 152 BNS (acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India) with broader scope
    3. Abolished entirely without replacement
    4. Made compoundable
  20. Q20. In Ramesh Kumar v State of Chhattisgarh (2001), the Supreme Court clarified the scope of Section 113A IEA holding the presumption
    1. Is automatic
    2. Is discretionary — court "may" presume only if cruelty is established with sufficient proximity to suicide
    3. Cannot apply ever
    4. Applies to any death
  21. Q21. Default bail (statutory) under CrPC arises after
    1. 60 or 90 days
    2. 30 days
    3. 15 days
    4. 120 days
  22. Q22. Magistrate's power to take cognizance is under CrPC
    1. Section 154
    2. Section 156
    3. Section 190
    4. Section 200
  23. Q23. BNSS, 2023 replaces
    1. IPC
    2. CrPC 1973
    3. Evidence Act
    4. Police Act
  24. Q24. FIR is registered under CrPC
    1. Section 154
    2. Section 161
    3. Section 173
    4. Section 156
  25. Q25. Anticipatory bail is under CrPC
    1. Section 437
    2. Section 438
    3. Section 439
    4. Section 167
  26. Q26. Compounding of offences is governed by
    1. Section 359 BNSS (= Section 320 CrPC)
    2. Section 482
    3. Section 100
    4. Section 41
  27. Q27. Inherent powers of the High Court under BNSS are preserved by Section
    1. 482
    2. 528
    3. 362
    4. 401
  28. Q28. Indian Evidence Act 1872 is replaced by
    1. BNS
    2. BSA
    3. BNSS
    4. Hindu Marriage Act
  29. Q29. Burden of proof in civil cases lies on
    1. Plaintiff
    2. Defendant
    3. Court
    4. Witness
  30. Q30. Hearsay evidence is generally
    1. Admissible
    2. Not admissible
    3. Conclusive
    4. Best evidence
  31. Q31. Dying declaration is admissible under Evidence Act
    1. Section 32(1)
    2. Section 33
    3. Section 34
    4. Section 60
  32. Q32. Burden of proof in criminal case lies on
    1. Defence
    2. Prosecution
    3. Accused
    4. Court
  33. Q33. An agreement in restraint of trade is void under Indian Contract Act
    1. Section 23
    2. Section 27
    3. Section 28
    4. Section 30
  34. Q34. Consideration must be lawful under
    1. Section 23
    2. Section 24
    3. Section 25
    4. Section 26
  35. Q35. Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose established
    1. Minor's contract is void ab initio
    2. Minor's contract is voidable
    3. Minor can ratify on majority
    4. Minor's contract is illegal
  36. Q36. Coercion is defined under ICA
    1. Section 15
    2. Section 16
    3. Section 17
    4. Section 18
  37. Q37. Specific performance is granted under
    1. Specific Relief Act 1963
    2. Indian Contract Act
    3. Transfer of Property Act
    4. Sale of Goods Act
  38. Q38. Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) established
    1. Strict liability
    2. Duty of care (neighbour principle)
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Volenti non fit injuria
  39. Q39. Absolute liability was first enunciated in India in
    1. MC Mehta v UoI (Oleum Gas)
    2. Bhopal Gas Tragedy
    3. Vellore Citizens
    4. Indian Council
  40. Q40. Volenti non fit injuria means
    1. Voluntary assumption of risk
    2. Strict liability
    3. No fault
    4. Burden of proof
  41. Q41. Strict liability rule was laid down in
    1. Donoghue v Stevenson
    2. Rylands v Fletcher
    3. MC Mehta v UoI
    4. Bhopal Gas case
  42. Q42. Hindu Marriage Act applies to
    1. Hindus only
    2. All Indian citizens
    3. Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, Sikhs
    4. Hindus and Muslims
  43. Q43. Divorce by mutual consent under HMA is in
    1. Section 13
    2. Section 13B
    3. Section 14
    4. Section 15
  44. Q44. Muslim marriage is essentially a
    1. Sacrament
    2. Civil contract
    3. Sacred bond
    4. Religious ritual
  45. Q45. Special Marriage Act, 1954 enables
    1. Inter-faith marriages
    2. Hindu marriages
    3. Muslim marriages
    4. Court adoption
  46. Q46. Transfer of Property Act 1882 applies to
    1. Movable property
    2. Immovable property
    3. Both
    4. Negotiable instruments
  47. Q47. Mortgage is defined under TPA
    1. Section 58
    2. Section 105
    3. Section 122
    4. Section 54
  48. Q48. Easement is governed by
    1. Indian Easements Act 1882
    2. TPA
    3. SRA
    4. Registration Act
  49. Q49. Latin "ratio decidendi" means
    1. Reason for the decision
    2. Obiter dictum
    3. Stare decisis
    4. Res judicata
  50. Q50. "Audi alteram partem" means
    1. Hear the other side
    2. First in time
    3. Beyond doubt
    4. Higher authority