Daily MCQ Paper — 28 April 2026

Daily MCQ Paper — 28 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

1. Q1. I.R. Coelho v State of Tamil Nadu (2007) ruled that
   1. 9th Schedule laws are immune to judicial review
   2. Post-1973 9th Schedule laws can be tested against basic structure
   3. 9th Schedule was unconstitutional
   4. Article 31B was deleted
2. Q2. A.K. Gopalan v State of Madras (1950) interpreted Article 21 as
   1. Subject to due process
   2. Procedure established by law (narrow)
   3. Inclusive of natural justice
   4. Including Article 19 freedoms
3. Q3. Golak Nath v State of Punjab (1967) held that
   1. Parliament can amend Fundamental Rights
   2. Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights
   3. Article 368 is unrestricted
   4. Right to Property is sacrosanct
4. Q4. S.R. Bommai v Union of India (1994) is the landmark on
   1. Centre-State financial relations
   2. Article 356 — judicial review of President's Rule
   3. Anti-defection
   4. Reservation
5. Q5. ADM Jabalpur v Shivkant Shukla (1976) held that
   1. Habeas corpus is suspended during Emergency
   2. Habeas corpus was always available
   3. Article 21 was inalienable
   4. Emergency proclamation was void
6. Q6. Olga Tellis v Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985) recognised
   1. Right to shelter
   2. Right to livelihood as part of Article 21
   3. Right to privacy
   4. Right to food
7. Q7. Kesavananda Bharati (1973) was decided by a bench of
   1. 7 judges
   2. 9 judges
   3. 11 judges
   4. 13 judges
8. Q8. Lily Thomas v Union of India (2013) held
   1. MPs/MLAs convicted for >2 yr sentence stand immediately disqualified
   2. 3-month appeal stay
   3. Section 8(4) of RPA was valid
   4. Disqualification needs Speaker's ruling
9. Q9. Minerva Mills v Union of India (1980) struck down
   1. 42nd Amendment's 9th Schedule changes
   2. Sections 4 and 55 of 42nd Amendment
   3. 38th Amendment in entirety
   4. 44th Amendment
10. Q10. Indira Nehru Gandhi v Raj Narain (1975) struck down
    1. 39th Amendment's clause 4
    2. Election laws
    3. Article 329A entirely
    4. 42nd Amendment
11. Q11. BNS Section 79 corresponds to which IPC concept?
    1. Mistake of fact
    2. Act of judge
    3. Common intention
    4. Right of private defence
12. Q12. Under BNS, kidnapping from India is covered under Section
    1. 137
    2. 138
    3. 139
    4. 140
13. Q13. Under BNS Section 80, accident in doing a lawful act is
    1. Punishable
    2. Not an offence
    3. Punishable with fine only
    4. Compoundable
14. Q14. BNS Section 138 deals with
    1. Kidnapping from lawful guardianship
    2. Abduction
    3. Wrongful confinement
    4. Hijacking
15. Q15. Abduction under BNS Section 139 requires
    1. Force or deceitful means
    2. Voluntary movement
    3. Consent
    4. Public place
16. Q16. BNS Section 296 corresponds to which IPC concept?
    1. Mischief
    2. Theft
    3. Cheating
    4. Defamation
17. Q17. Right of private defence is covered under BNS Section
    1. 96-106
    2. 100-110
    3. 85-95
    4. 120-130
18. Q18. Mischief by killing or maiming animal worth Rs 50+ falls under BNS Section
    1. 296
    2. 297
    3. 298
    4. 299
19. Q19. BNS Section 84 deals with
    1. Act of unsound mind
    2. Act under intoxication
    3. Act of child under 7
    4. Necessity
20. Q20. BNS came into force on
    1. 1 July 2023
    2. 1 July 2024
    3. 1 January 2024
    4. 15 August 2024
21. Q21. BNSS Section 56 corresponds to which CrPC provision?
    1. Section 41 – arrest without warrant
    2. Section 50 – rights of arrested
    3. Section 56 – person arrested to be taken to magistrate
    4. Section 57
22. Q22. Withdrawal from prosecution under BNSS is governed by Section
    1. 321
    2. 355
    3. 356
    4. 360
23. Q23. BNSS Section 187 deals with
    1. Charge sheet
    2. Police custody and judicial custody timelines
    3. Bail
    4. Witness summons
24. Q24. BNSS came into force on
    1. 1 July 2023
    2. 1 July 2024
    3. 15 August 2024
    4. 1 January 2024
25. Q25. Default bail under BNSS arises if charge sheet not filed within
    1. 60 days only
    2. 90 days only
    3. 60 or 90 days based on offence
    4. 30 days
26. Q26. BNSS Section 354 deals with
    1. Compounding of offences
    2. Withdrawal from prosecution
    3. Plea bargaining
    4. Inquest
27. Q27. First Information Report under BNSS is registered under Section
    1. 154
    2. 173
    3. 175
    4. 156
28. Q28. Confession to a police officer is
    1. Admissible always
    2. Inadmissible per se
    3. Admissible if recorded
    4. Admissible if voluntary
29. Q29. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam Section 14 corresponds to which IEA section?
    1. Section 11 (alibi)
    2. Section 14 (existence of state of mind)
    3. Section 15
    4. Section 16
30. Q30. Dying declaration under BSA is covered in Section
    1. 32
    2. 26
    3. 30
    4. 28
31. Q31. Admissions under BSA are defined in Section
    1. 17
    2. 19
    3. 20
    4. 21
32. Q32. BSA recognises electronic evidence under Section
    1. 65A/65B
    2. 61-65
    3. 62 onwards (electronic and digital records as primary)
    4. 63 only
33. Q33. Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act provides that wagering agreements are
    1. Void
    2. Voidable
    3. Illegal
    4. Unenforceable but valid
34. Q34. The doctrine of frustration is codified in ICA Section
    1. 39
    2. 56
    3. 62
    4. 73
35. Q35. Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose (1903) established that contracts with minors are
    1. Voidable
    2. Void ab initio
    3. Valid
    4. Contingent
36. Q36. Lalman Shukla v Gauri Dutt (1913) is the leading case on
    1. Acceptance
    2. Communication of offer
    3. Consideration
    4. Capacity
37. Q37. Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball Co (1893) involved
    1. General offer through advertisement
    2. Specific offer
    3. Counter-offer
    4. Conditional acceptance
38. Q38. Rylands v Fletcher (1868) established the rule of
    1. Negligence
    2. Strict liability
    3. Absolute liability
    4. Vicarious liability
39. Q39. M.C. Mehta v Union of India (Oleum gas case 1986) propounded
    1. Strict liability
    2. Absolute liability without exceptions
    3. Polluter pays
    4. No-fault liability under MV Act
40. Q40. Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) established
    1. Neighbour principle in negligence
    2. Strict liability
    3. Trespass to person
    4. Defamation
41. Q41. Damnum sine injuria means
    1. Damage with legal injury
    2. Damage without legal injury
    3. Injury without damage
    4. Self-help
42. Q42. Hindu Marriage Act Section 5(iii) prescribes minimum age for
    1. Bride 18, Groom 21
    2. Bride 21, Groom 18
    3. Bride 16, Groom 18
    4. Bride 18, Groom 18
43. Q43. Grounds for divorce under HMA are listed in Section
    1. 9
    2. 11
    3. 12
    4. 13
44. Q44. Triple talaq was criminalised by
    1. Hindu Marriage Act Amendment
    2. Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act 2019
    3. Special Marriage Act
    4. Personal Laws Amendment
45. Q45. Sarla Mudgal v Union of India (1995) dealt with
    1. Bigamy through conversion to Islam
    2. Talaq
    3. Maintenance
    4. Adoption
46. Q46. Section 105 of TPA defines
    1. Sale
    2. Mortgage
    3. Lease
    4. Gift
47. Q47. Substituted performance through third party is covered under SRA Section
    1. 14
    2. 15
    3. 20
    4. 20A
48. Q48. Specific performance of contracts is mandatory (post-2018 amendment) for contracts other than those listed under SRA Section
    1. 10
    2. 11
    3. 14
    4. 16
49. Q49. The Indian Penal Code, 1860 was drafted by
    1. Macaulay's Law Commission
    2. Stephen Commission
    3. Rankin Commission
    4. Sapru Committee
50. Q50. "Caveat emptor" means
    1. Buyer beware
    2. Seller beware
    3. Public beware
    4. Latet anguis