Daily MCQ Paper — 29 April 2026

Daily MCQ Paper — 29 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

1. Q1. Vishaka v State of Rajasthan (1997) laid down guidelines on
   1. Custodial torture
   2. Sexual harassment at workplace
   3. Reservation
   4. Free speech
2. Q2. Maneka Gandhi v Union of India (1978) expanded the scope of which Article?
   1. 14
   2. 19
   3. 21
   4. 32
3. Q3. Indra Sawhney v Union of India is famously associated with
   1. Mandal Commission / 27% OBC reservation
   2. Free legal aid
   3. Right to privacy
   4. Triple talaq
4. Q4. Justice K S Puttaswamy v Union of India (2017) declared right to privacy
   1. Not a fundamental right
   2. A statutory right
   3. A fundamental right under Art 21
   4. A directive principle
5. Q5. Vineeta Sharma v Rakesh Sharma (2020) clarified
   1. Adoption rights
   2. Coparcenary rights of daughters in HUF
   3. Inter-caste marriage
   4. Triple talaq
6. Q6. Article 32 was called by Dr. Ambedkar the
   1. "Heart and soul of the Constitution"
   2. "Conscience of the Constitution"
   3. "Cornerstone of Federalism"
   4. "Magna Carta"
7. Q7. "State" under Article 12 includes
   1. Government and Parliament
   2. Government and Legislature of states
   3. All local/other authorities under control of GoI
   4. All of the above
8. Q8. Writ of habeas corpus literally means
   1. You may have the body
   2. Let it be done
   3. Let him answer
   4. Cause of action
9. Q9. The Doctrine of Eclipse applies to
   1. Pre-Constitution laws inconsistent with FRs
   2. Post-Constitution laws only
   3. International treaties
   4. Customary law
10. Q10. Quo warranto can be issued against
    1. Private contracts
    2. Public office holders
    3. Spouses
    4. Minors
11. Q11. Mischief is defined under BNS section
    1. 296
    2. 303
    3. 318
    4. 356
12. Q12. Punishment for theft under BNS is
    1. Up to 1 year
    2. Up to 3 years and/or fine
    3. Up to 5 years
    4. Up to 7 years
13. Q13. Cheating is defined under BNS section
    1. 318
    2. 296
    3. 322
    4. 351
14. Q14. Criminal trespass under BNS is in
    1. Section 329
    2. Section 318
    3. Section 351
    4. Section 296
15. Q15. Mens rea means
    1. Guilty body
    2. Guilty mind
    3. Innocent intent
    4. Malice afore-fact
16. Q16. Defamation under BNS is dealt with from
    1. Sections 351-356
    2. Sections 296-303
    3. Sections 318-322
    4. Sections 240-250
17. Q17. Common intention (formerly IPC 34) appears in BNS as
    1. Section 3(5)
    2. Section 5
    3. Section 7
    4. Section 9
18. Q18. Criminal intimidation is defined under BNS section
    1. 351
    2. 296
    3. 318
    4. 322
19. Q19. Murder under BNS is dealt with in section
    1. 101
    2. 103
    3. 105
    4. 107
20. Q20. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder under BNS is in section
    1. 100
    2. 101
    3. 105
    4. 103
21. Q21. Arrest by police without warrant is governed under BNSS section
    1. 35
    2. 38
    3. 41
    4. 46
22. Q22. Powers to release on bail in non-bailable offence rest with
    1. Police only
    2. Court only (Magistrate / Sessions)
    3. Both
    4. Public prosecutor
23. Q23. Anticipatory bail provision is under BNSS section
    1. 438
    2. 482
    3. 496
    4. 438 corresponds to BNSS s.482
24. Q24. Investigation timeline for serious offences under BNSS is
    1. 30 days
    2. 60 days
    3. 90 days
    4. As per BNSS s.187 (60-90 days)
25. Q25. First Information Report is registered under BNSS section
    1. 173
    2. 154
    3. 158
    4. 165
26. Q26. A summons-case under BNSS is one where punishment is
    1. Up to 1 year
    2. Up to 2 years
    3. Up to 3 years
    4. Above 7 years
27. Q27. Default bail (statutory bail) accrues if charge-sheet is not filed within
    1. 30 days
    2. 60/90 days
    3. 120 days
    4. 180 days
28. Q28. Doctrine of Res Gestae deals with
    1. Things simultaneously done — admissible
    2. Hearsay only
    3. Past habits
    4. Opinion of experts
29. Q29. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) replaced
    1. Indian Evidence Act 1872
    2. CrPC 1973
    3. IPC 1860
    4. Limitation Act
30. Q30. Burden of proof generally lies on the
    1. Defendant
    2. Plaintiff who would fail if no evidence
    3. Court
    4. State always
31. Q31. Confessions made to a police officer are
    1. Always admissible
    2. Inadmissible against the accused
    3. Admissible if voluntary
    4. Admissible after 24 hours
32. Q32. An accomplice is
    1. A competent witness
    2. An incompetent witness
    3. Always disqualified
    4. Only an expert
33. Q33. Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose held
    1. Contracts by minors are void ab initio
    2. Voidable at minor's option
    3. Voidable at adult's option
    4. Valid
34. Q34. A contract without consideration is void unless
    1. Made in writing and registered between near relatives out of love
    2. Always
    3. Made on stamp paper
    4. None
35. Q35. Lalman Shukla v Gauri Datt held
    1. Acceptance must be by assent
    2. Without knowledge of an offer there is no acceptance
    3. Performance is acceptance
    4. Offer once made cannot be withdrawn
36. Q36. An agreement in restraint of trade is
    1. Generally void (s.27)
    2. Always valid
    3. Voidable
    4. Illegal
37. Q37. Indemnity is defined under Contract Act section
    1. 124
    2. 126
    3. 127
    4. 128
38. Q38. M.C. Mehta v Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak) propounded the
    1. Strict liability rule
    2. Absolute liability rule
    3. Vicarious liability rule
    4. Volenti non fit injuria
39. Q39. Damnum sine injuria means
    1. Loss without legal injury — not actionable
    2. Legal injury without loss — actionable
    3. Both loss and injury
    4. Neither
40. Q40. Trespass to land is actionable
    1. Per se
    2. Only on proof of damage
    3. Only against landlord
    4. Only at night
41. Q41. Injuria sine damno means
    1. Legal injury without actual loss — actionable
    2. Loss without injury
    3. Both
    4. Tortious immunity
42. Q42. Conditions for valid Hindu marriage under HMA s.5 include
    1. Monogamy
    2. Soundness of mind
    3. Minimum ages
    4. All of the above
43. Q43. Triple Talaq (talaq-e-biddat) was held unconstitutional in
    1. Shayara Bano v UOI (2017)
    2. Shah Bano case
    3. Daniel Latifi case
    4. Sarla Mudgal case
44. Q44. Restitution of conjugal rights under HMA is in section
    1. 9
    2. 10
    3. 11
    4. 13
45. Q45. Christian Marriage Act in India is of
    1. 1872
    2. 1865
    3. 1869
    4. 1955
46. Q46. Transfer of Property Act 1882 deals primarily with
    1. Movable property
    2. Immovable property inter vivos
    3. Wills only
    4. Intestate succession
47. Q47. Mortgage is defined under TPA section
    1. 58
    2. 60
    3. 62
    4. 67
48. Q48. Doctrine of Part-Performance is in TPA section
    1. 53
    2. 53A
    3. 54
    4. 58
49. Q49. "Sui generis" means
    1. Of its own kind
    2. By the same law
    3. Without prejudice
    4. In good faith
50. Q50. "Habeas Corpus" is a term originating in
    1. English Common Law
    2. Roman Law
    3. Indian Law
    4. French Code