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Daily MCQ Paper — 30 March 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 30 March 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. In E P Royappa v State of Tamil Nadu (1974), Justice Bhagwati propounded the
    1. Classical reasonable classification test
    2. New doctrine of equality — arbitrariness as antithesis of equality
    3. Doctrine of pleasure
    4. Basic structure doctrine
  2. Q2. In Anuradha Bhasin v Union of India (2020), regarding internet shutdowns in Jammu & Kashmir, the Supreme Court held
    1. Internet shutdowns are non-justiciable
    2. Indefinite suspension is impermissible; orders must be reasoned, proportionate, periodically reviewed and judicially reviewable under Article 19(1)(a) and 19(1)(g)
    3. Article 19 does not extend to internet
    4. Suspension cannot be challenged
  3. Q3. In Indra Sawhney v Union of India (1992), the 9-judge Supreme Court bench held the upper limit of reservation as
    1. 40%
    2. 50% (with creamy layer exclusion for OBCs)
    3. 60%
    4. 27%
  4. Q4. In Ashoka Kumar Thakur v UoI (2008), the Supreme Court upheld 27% OBC reservation in central educational institutions but mandated
    1. Removal of creamy layer
    2. Inclusion of all OBCs
    3. 100% reservation in IITs
    4. None of the above
  5. Q5. In Shreya Singhal v UoI (2015), the Supreme Court struck down which provision as violative of Article 19(1)(a)
    1. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act 2000
    2. Section 124A IPC (sedition)
    3. Section 295A IPC
    4. Section 153 IPC
  6. Q6. Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution guarantees the right to
    1. Form associations or unions or co-operative societies (post-97th Amendment)
    2. Speech and expression
    3. Reside and settle
    4. Profession or trade
  7. Q7. In Olga Tellis v Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985), the Supreme Court held that the right to livelihood is a part of
    1. Article 19(1)(a)
    2. Article 21 (right to life)
    3. Article 25
    4. Article 32
  8. Q8. In Vishaka v State of Rajasthan (1997), the Supreme Court laid down guidelines on
    1. Bonded labour
    2. Sexual harassment of women at the workplace (subsumed by PoSH Act 2013)
    3. Custodial violence
    4. Manual scavenging
  9. Q9. In Common Cause v Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court recognised
    1. Right to procreate
    2. Right to die with dignity — passive euthanasia and advance medical directives ("living will") under Article 21
    3. Right to property
    4. Right to information
  10. Q10. In Justice K S Puttaswamy v UoI (2017), the 9-judge bench unanimously held that the right to privacy is
    1. Statutory only
    2. A fundamental right under Article 21 (with elements drawn from Articles 14, 19)
    3. Subject to legislative discretion
    4. Not protected
  11. Q11. BNS 2023 Section 296 deals with
    1. Murder
    2. Obscene acts in public
    3. Defamation
    4. Theft
  12. Q12. BNS 2023 Section 354 deals with
    1. Sexual harassment of woman at workplace
    2. Criminal force on woman with intent to outrage modesty (corresponds to old IPC 354)
    3. Stalking
    4. Voyeurism
  13. Q13. BNS 2023 Section 101 (corresponds to old IPC 300) deals with
    1. Theft
    2. Murder (Culpable homicide amounting to murder)
    3. Cheating
    4. Robbery
  14. Q14. BNS 2023 Section 78 deals specifically with
    1. Abetment of suicide
    2. Stalking
    3. Defamation
    4. Cheating
  15. Q15. Mob lynching has been specifically criminalised under BNS 2023 in Section
    1. 103(2)
    2. 107
    3. 115
    4. 119
  16. Q16. BNS Section 113 deals with
    1. Theft
    2. Terrorist act (added afresh under BNS, earlier in UAPA)
    3. Sedition
    4. Defamation
  17. Q17. The offence of "sedition" under old IPC Section 124A has been
    1. Retained verbatim in BNS
    2. Replaced by Section 152 BNS (acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India) with broader scope
    3. Abolished entirely without replacement
    4. Made compoundable
  18. Q18. BNS Section 318 deals with
    1. Theft
    2. Cheating
    3. Murder
    4. Defamation
  19. Q19. BNS Section 69 punishes which offence (newly introduced)
    1. Cheating
    2. Sexual intercourse by deceitful means or false promise to marry
    3. Theft
    4. Murder
  20. Q20. BNS Section 351 deals with
    1. Murder
    2. Criminal intimidation (corresponds to old IPC 503)
    3. Hurt
    4. Theft
  21. Q21. Maximum total custody period under BNSS 2023 Section 187 for offences punishable with death/life imprisonment/imprisonment ≥ 10 years is
    1. 60 days
    2. 90 days
    3. 120 days
    4. 180 days
  22. Q22. BNSS 2023 Section 482 deals with
    1. Anticipatory bail (corresponds to old CrPC 438)
    2. Regular bail
    3. Magistrate jurisdiction
    4. Investigation procedure
  23. Q23. BNSS 2023 Section 480 deals with
    1. Anticipatory bail
    2. Regular bail (when bailable offence) — corresponds to old CrPC 436
    3. Search
    4. Trial
  24. Q24. BNSS 2023 Section 187(3) bars magistrate police custody beyond
    1. 15 days at first remand (continuing the 15-day limit in CD Singh Ahluwalia jurisprudence)
    2. 30 days
    3. 60 days
    4. 7 days
  25. Q25. BNSS 2023 Section 35 prescribes
    1. Procedure for arrest without warrant by police officer (corresponds to old CrPC 41)
    2. Trial procedure
    3. Bail conditions
    4. Sentence
  26. Q26. BNSS 2023 Section 41A (continuing CrPC 41A from Arnesh Kumar v Bihar 2014) requires
    1. Arrest in all cases
    2. Notice of appearance for offences punishable up to 7 years instead of arrest
    3. Bail in all cases
    4. None of the above
  27. Q27. Zero FIR provision under BNSS 2023 allows registration of FIR
    1. Only at police station of jurisdiction
    2. At any police station regardless of jurisdiction (then transferred)
    3. Only by Magistrate
    4. Only via online portal
  28. Q28. In Sat Paul v Delhi Administration (1976), the Supreme Court held about hostile witnesses that
    1. Their entire evidence is rejected
    2. That part of the evidence which is consistent with the party's case may be acted upon
    3. They cannot be cross-examined
    4. Their evidence is conclusive
  29. Q29. BSA 2023 Section 138 (corresponds to old IEA Section 137) deals with
    1. Examination-in-chief
    2. Cross-examination, re-examination order
    3. Hearsay
    4. Confessions
  30. Q30. Leading questions under BSA 2023 Section 140 are permitted in
    1. Examination-in-chief always
    2. Cross-examination always
    3. Examination-in-chief never (except by leave of court)
    4. Re-examination always
  31. Q31. A "hostile witness" under BSA 2023 is one who
    1. Refuses to depose
    2. Resiles from his earlier statement; party calling him may be permitted to cross-examine
    3. Speaks only in one language
    4. Has criminal antecedents
  32. Q32. BSA 2023 Section 141 deals with
    1. Cross-examination as to credit
    2. Privileged communications
    3. Documentary evidence
    4. Number of witnesses
  33. Q33. In Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose (1903), the Privy Council held that
    1. Minor's contract is voidable
    2. Minor's contract is void ab initio
    3. Minor's contract is valid
    4. Minor's contract is enforceable
  34. Q34. In Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball Co (1893), the court held that the advertisement was a
    1. Mere puff
    2. Unilateral offer to the world (general offer); accepted by performance
    3. Bilateral contract
    4. Void agreement
  35. Q35. In Lalman Shukla v Gauri Dutt (1913), the Allahabad High Court held that for a valid contract
    1. Knowledge of offer is essential before performance can be acceptance
    2. Performance alone is acceptance
    3. No consideration needed
    4. Communication of acceptance is unnecessary
  36. Q36. Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 deals with
    1. Discharge by frustration / impossibility of performance (Doctrine of Frustration)
    2. Specific performance
    3. Quasi-contract
    4. Penalty clauses
  37. Q37. In Hadley v Baxendale (1854), the rule on damages for breach of contract limited recovery to
    1. All consequences of breach
    2. Damages naturally arising or those reasonably contemplated by both parties at contract formation
    3. Punitive damages
    4. Specific performance only
  38. Q38. The rule of absolute liability (no exceptions) was laid down in
    1. Donoghue v Stevenson
    2. M C Mehta v Union of India (1986) — Oleum Gas Leak case
    3. Rylands v Fletcher
    4. Bhopal Gas case directly
  39. Q39. Strict liability rule of Rylands v Fletcher (1868) applies to
    1. Personal injuries only
    2. Non-natural use of land causing escape of dangerous things
    3. Defamation
    4. All torts
  40. Q40. In Donoghue v Stevenson (1932), Lord Atkin propounded the
    1. Neighbour principle — duty of care to those reasonably foreseeable as affected by acts
    2. Strict liability
    3. Doctrine of frustration
    4. Volenti non fit injuria
  41. Q41. Volenti non fit injuria means
    1. He who hurts cannot complain
    2. To one who is willing, no harm is done — voluntary assumption of risk by plaintiff is a defence
    3. Compensation must equal injury
    4. Tort follows the criminal
  42. Q42. Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 deals with
    1. Conditions for marriage
    2. Grounds for divorce
    3. Maintenance
    4. Restitution of conjugal rights
  43. Q43. The Special Marriage Act 1954 applies to
    1. Hindus only
    2. Muslims only
    3. Inter-faith marriages and any persons regardless of religion
    4. Buddhists only
  44. Q44. Triple Talaq (talaq-e-biddat) was declared unconstitutional in
    1. Shayara Bano v UoI (2017) — held void by 3:2 majority; criminalised by Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act 2019
    2. Shah Bano case (1985)
    3. Mohd Ahmed Khan case
    4. None of the above
  45. Q45. Section 125 of the CrPC 1973 (now BNSS Section 144) on maintenance applies to
    1. Hindus only
    2. All persons regardless of religion (secular provision)
    3. Christians only
    4. Married persons only
  46. Q46. Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 defines transfer of property as
    1. An act by which a living person conveys property in present or future to other living persons
    2. Sale only
    3. Gift only
    4. Mortgage only
  47. Q47. The doctrine of "lis pendens" is contained in Section ___ of TPA 1882
    1. 40
    2. 52
    3. 53A
    4. 54
  48. Q48. Specific Relief Act 1963 was significantly amended in
    1. 2018 (Specific Relief (Amendment) Act 2018)
    2. 2010
    3. 2005
    4. 2024
  49. Q49. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on
    1. 15 August 1947
    2. 26 January 1950
    3. 26 November 1949
    4. 9 December 1946
  50. Q50. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution describes India as a
    1. Socialist Federal Republic
    2. Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic (added "Socialist Secular" by 42nd Amendment 1976)
    3. Federal State
    4. Confederation

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