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Daily MCQ Paper — 29 March 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 29 March 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. Section 377 IPC was read down (consensual same-sex acts decriminalised) in
    1. Naz Foundation (2009 HC)
    2. Suresh Kumar Koushal (2013)
    3. Navtej Singh Johar (2018)
    4. Joseph Shine (2018)
  2. Q2. Right to Privacy was declared a fundamental right under Article 21 in
    1. Kharak Singh (1962)
    2. MP Sharma (1954)
    3. Puttaswamy I (2017)
    4. Puttaswamy II (2018)
  3. Q3. Doctrine of Basic Structure was propounded in
    1. Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
    2. Golak Nath (1967)
    3. Minerva Mills (1980)
    4. Shankari Prasad (1951)
  4. Q4. Right to Education became a fundamental right via
    1. 86th Amendment
    2. 42nd Amendment
    3. 73rd Amendment
    4. 44th Amendment
  5. Q5. Aadhaar Act's passage as Money Bill was upheld in
    1. Puttaswamy I
    2. Puttaswamy II (Aadhaar)
    3. Rojer Mathew
    4. None
  6. Q6. Sabarimala temple women entry case was decided in
    1. 2017
    2. 2018
    3. 2019
    4. 2020
  7. Q7. Triple Talaq (Talaq-e-Biddat) was held unconstitutional in
    1. Shayara Bano (2017)
    2. Shah Bano (1985)
    3. Danial Latifi (2001)
    4. Mohd Ahmed Khan
  8. Q8. Article 21 includes the right to die with dignity (passive euthanasia) per
    1. Aruna Shanbaug (2011)
    2. Common Cause (2018)
    3. Both
    4. Gian Kaur (1996)
  9. Q9. In Shreya Singhal v UoI (2015), the Supreme Court struck down which provision as violative of Article 19(1)(a)
    1. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act 2000
    2. Section 124A IPC (sedition)
    3. Section 295A IPC
    4. Section 153 IPC
  10. Q10. The doctrine that a law inconsistent with FRs is void only to the extent of inconsistency is
    1. Doctrine of Severability
    2. Doctrine of Eclipse
    3. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
    4. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
  11. Q11. Theft is defined under IPC
    1. Section 378
    2. Section 383
    3. Section 390
    4. Section 405
  12. Q12. BNS, 2023 replaced
    1. IPC 1860
    2. CrPC 1973
    3. Evidence Act 1872
    4. All three
  13. Q13. Section 302 IPC (murder) corresponds in BNS to
    1. Sec 101
    2. Sec 103
    3. Sec 105
    4. Sec 100
  14. Q14. Mens rea means
    1. Guilty act
    2. Guilty mind
    3. Strict liability
    4. Vicarious liability
  15. Q15. Right of private defence of body is dealt under IPC
    1. Section 96-106
    2. Section 76-95
    3. Section 107-120
    4. Section 121-130
  16. Q16. Robbery is defined under IPC
    1. Section 378
    2. Section 383
    3. Section 390
    4. Section 405
  17. Q17. Criminal breach of trust is under IPC
    1. Section 405
    2. Section 415
    3. Section 425
    4. Section 463
  18. Q18. Common intention vs common object: common intention is under IPC
    1. Section 34
    2. Section 149
    3. Section 120A
    4. Section 120B
  19. Q19. Section 240 BNS, 2023 deals with
    1. False evidence
    2. Fabricating false evidence
    3. Giving false evidence
    4. Defamation
  20. Q20. The offence of "kidnapping or abducting in order to compel a woman to marriage" (Section 366 IPC) is renumbered in BNS 2023 as
    1. Section 87
    2. Section 100
    3. Section 137
    4. Section 144
  21. Q21. BNSS, 2023 replaces
    1. IPC
    2. CrPC 1973
    3. Evidence Act
    4. Police Act
  22. Q22. FIR is registered under CrPC
    1. Section 154
    2. Section 161
    3. Section 173
    4. Section 156
  23. Q23. Anticipatory bail is under CrPC
    1. Section 437
    2. Section 438
    3. Section 439
    4. Section 167
  24. Q24. Default bail (statutory) under CrPC arises after
    1. 60 or 90 days
    2. 30 days
    3. 15 days
    4. 120 days
  25. Q25. Magistrate's power to take cognizance is under CrPC
    1. Section 154
    2. Section 156
    3. Section 190
    4. Section 200
  26. Q26. Anticipatory bail is provided under
    1. Section 482 BNSS (= Section 438 CrPC)
    2. Section 173
    3. Section 100
    4. Section 41
  27. Q27. Under BNSS, an arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within
    1. 24 hours excluding journey time
    2. 48 hours
    3. 72 hours
    4. 15 days
  28. Q28. Hearsay evidence is generally
    1. Admissible
    2. Not admissible
    3. Conclusive
    4. Best evidence
  29. Q29. Burden of proof in civil cases lies on
    1. Plaintiff
    2. Defendant
    3. Court
    4. Witness
  30. Q30. Dying declaration is admissible under Evidence Act
    1. Section 32(1)
    2. Section 33
    3. Section 34
    4. Section 60
  31. Q31. Indian Evidence Act 1872 is replaced by
    1. BNS
    2. BSA
    3. BNSS
    4. Hindu Marriage Act
  32. Q32. Best evidence rule under BSA / IEA principally requires
    1. Hearsay
    2. Production of primary (original) document where contents of a document are to be proved, with secondary evidence allowed only in defined exceptions
    3. Oral evidence only
    4. Confession
  33. Q33. An agreement in restraint of trade is void under Indian Contract Act
    1. Section 23
    2. Section 27
    3. Section 28
    4. Section 30
  34. Q34. Consideration must be lawful under
    1. Section 23
    2. Section 24
    3. Section 25
    4. Section 26
  35. Q35. Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose established
    1. Minor's contract is void ab initio
    2. Minor's contract is voidable
    3. Minor can ratify on majority
    4. Minor's contract is illegal
  36. Q36. Coercion is defined under ICA
    1. Section 15
    2. Section 16
    3. Section 17
    4. Section 18
  37. Q37. Specific performance is granted under
    1. Specific Relief Act 1963
    2. Indian Contract Act
    3. Transfer of Property Act
    4. Sale of Goods Act
  38. Q38. Strict liability rule was laid down in
    1. Donoghue v Stevenson
    2. Rylands v Fletcher
    3. MC Mehta v UoI
    4. Bhopal Gas case
  39. Q39. Absolute liability was first enunciated in India in
    1. MC Mehta v UoI (Oleum Gas)
    2. Bhopal Gas Tragedy
    3. Vellore Citizens
    4. Indian Council
  40. Q40. Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) established
    1. Strict liability
    2. Duty of care (neighbour principle)
    3. Vicarious liability
    4. Volenti non fit injuria
  41. Q41. Volenti non fit injuria means
    1. Voluntary assumption of risk
    2. Strict liability
    3. No fault
    4. Burden of proof
  42. Q42. Hindu Marriage Act applies to
    1. Hindus only
    2. All Indian citizens
    3. Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, Sikhs
    4. Hindus and Muslims
  43. Q43. Divorce by mutual consent under HMA is in
    1. Section 13
    2. Section 13B
    3. Section 14
    4. Section 15
  44. Q44. Muslim marriage is essentially a
    1. Sacrament
    2. Civil contract
    3. Sacred bond
    4. Religious ritual
  45. Q45. Special Marriage Act, 1954 enables
    1. Inter-faith marriages
    2. Hindu marriages
    3. Muslim marriages
    4. Court adoption
  46. Q46. Transfer of Property Act 1882 applies to
    1. Movable property
    2. Immovable property
    3. Both
    4. Negotiable instruments
  47. Q47. Mortgage is defined under TPA
    1. Section 58
    2. Section 105
    3. Section 122
    4. Section 54
  48. Q48. Easement is governed by
    1. Indian Easements Act 1882
    2. TPA
    3. SRA
    4. Registration Act
  49. Q49. Latin "ratio decidendi" means
    1. Reason for the decision
    2. Obiter dictum
    3. Stare decisis
    4. Res judicata
  50. Q50. "Audi alteram partem" means
    1. Hear the other side
    2. First in time
    3. Beyond doubt
    4. Higher authority