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Daily MCQ Paper — 4 April 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 4 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. Habeas corpus, one of the five constitutional writs, is issued
    1. To compel performance of public duty
    2. To produce a person illegally detained before the court
    3. For quashing wrongful orders
    4. For prohibiting lower court action
  2. Q2. Article 32 of the Constitution, called the "heart and soul of the Constitution" by Dr Ambedkar, provides for
    1. Fundamental Duties
    2. The right to constitutional remedies — power to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights
    3. Directive Principles
    4. Emergency provisions
  3. Q3. The doctrine of Basic Structure of the Constitution was propounded in
    1. Golak Nath v Punjab 1967
    2. Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala 1973 (13-judge bench, 7:6 majority)
    3. Minerva Mills v Union of India 1980
    4. Indira Gandhi v Raj Narain 1975
  4. Q4. Article 21 was given expansive interpretation including right to life with dignity in
    1. Maneka Gandhi v Union of India 1978
    2. AK Gopalan v State of Madras 1950
    3. Kesavananda Bharati 1973
    4. Indra Sawhney v UoI 1992
  5. Q5. Article 14 (right to equality) classification test, requiring intelligible differentia and rational nexus, was laid down in
    1. State of West Bengal v Anwar Ali Sarkar 1952
    2. EP Royappa v State of TN 1974
    3. Maneka Gandhi 1978
    4. Indra Sawhney 1992
  6. Q6. The 50% ceiling on reservations was set in
    1. Indra Sawhney v UoI 1992 (9-judge bench)
    2. M Nagaraj 2006
    3. Janhit Abhiyan 2022
    4. MR Balaji 1963
  7. Q7. Right to Privacy was declared a Fundamental Right under Article 21 in
    1. Naz Foundation v NCT 2009
    2. Justice K S Puttaswamy v Union of India 2017 (9-judge bench, unanimous)
    3. Kharak Singh v UP 1962
    4. Govind v MP 1975
  8. Q8. Reservations in promotions for SC/ST were upheld with conditions in
    1. MR Balaji v Mysore 1963
    2. M Nagaraj v Union of India 2006 (need quantifiable data on backwardness, inadequacy of representation, administrative efficiency)
    3. Indra Sawhney 1992
    4. Champakam Dorairajan 1951
  9. Q9. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment 2019 introducing 10% EWS reservation was upheld in
    1. Indra Sawhney 1992
    2. Janhit Abhiyan v Union of India 2022 (3:2 majority)
    3. M Nagaraj 2006
    4. Champakam 1951
  10. Q10. Article 19(1)(a) right to freedom of speech includes right to know and information held in
    1. Bennett Coleman v UoI 1972
    2. State of UP v Raj Narain 1975 and SP Gupta v UoI 1981
    3. Indian Express Newspapers v UoI 1985
    4. Romesh Thappar 1950
  11. Q11. Extortion is defined under BNS as
    1. Section 308 BNS (= IPC 383) — putting any person in fear of injury and dishonestly inducing delivery of property
    2. Section 309
    3. Section 75
    4. Section 175
  12. Q12. Robbery becomes Dacoity when committed by
    1. Two persons
    2. Five or more persons (BNS 310 = IPC 391); even if some abet
    3. Three persons
    4. Seven persons
  13. Q13. Theft is defined under BNS as
    1. Section 303 BNS (corresponding to Section 378 IPC) — dishonestly taking movable property out of possession of any person without consent
    2. Section 351
    3. Section 175
    4. Section 100
  14. Q14. In State of UP v Naresh Chandra (2011), the SC held that for dacoity
    1. Three persons suffice
    2. The mandatory minimum of five persons is essential; if fewer participants prove, charge fails on technical ground but offence may sustain as robbery
    3. Two persons suffice
    4. Number is irrelevant
  15. Q15. Abduction (BNS 138 / IPC 362) is distinguished from kidnapping in that it
    1. Requires use of force or deceitful means
    2. Is limited to minors
    3. Is non-cognisable
    4. Cannot be committed against adults
  16. Q16. Kidnapping from lawful guardianship under BNS for a minor refers to age below
    1. 15 (male) and 18 (female) — same as IPC 361
    2. 12 / 14
    3. 18 for both
    4. 21 for both
  17. Q17. Cheating under BNS is defined in
    1. Section 318 (= IPC 415) — dishonestly inducing person to deliver property or do/omit anything
    2. Section 175
    3. Section 75
    4. Section 100
  18. Q18. The leading authority on what constitutes "enticement" in kidnapping cases is
    1. Vishwanath v UP 1960
    2. Thakorlal D Vadgama v State of Gujarat 1973
    3. State of Haryana v Raja Ram 1973
    4. All of the above
  19. Q19. Pyare Lal Bhargava v State of Rajasthan (1963) is a landmark on
    1. Bail
    2. Theft — temporary taking with intent to cause wrongful loss is theft, even if returned later
    3. Murder
    4. Cheating
  20. Q20. Murder versus culpable homicide distinction in landmark Virsa Singh v State of Punjab 1958 turns on
    1. Premeditation alone
    2. Whether the bodily injury intended was sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death — IPC 300 thirdly
    3. Number of injuries
    4. Use of weapon
  21. Q21. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 replaced
    1. Indian Evidence Act
    2. Code of Criminal Procedure 1973
    3. Indian Penal Code
    4. Civil Procedure Code
  22. Q22. First Information Report regarding cognisable offence is registered under
    1. Section 173 BNSS (= Section 154 CrPC)
    2. Section 100
    3. Section 50
    4. Section 41
  23. Q23. Inquest by police on unnatural death is conducted under
    1. Section 174 BNSS (= Section 174 CrPC)
    2. Section 173
    3. Section 100
    4. Section 41
  24. Q24. Compounding of offences is governed by
    1. Section 359 BNSS (= Section 320 CrPC)
    2. Section 482
    3. Section 100
    4. Section 41
  25. Q25. Anticipatory bail is provided under
    1. Section 482 BNSS (= Section 438 CrPC)
    2. Section 173
    3. Section 100
    4. Section 41
  26. Q26. Power of police officer to arrest without warrant is in
    1. Section 35 BNSS (= Section 41 CrPC)
    2. Section 173
    3. Section 154
    4. Section 482
  27. Q27. Production before magistrate within 24 hours of arrest is mandated by
    1. Article 22(2) of Constitution + Section 58 BNSS (= Section 57 CrPC)
    2. Section 100
    3. Section 41 only
    4. Section 482
  28. Q28. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 retained the broad architecture of which Act
    1. CPC 1908
    2. Indian Evidence Act 1872
    3. IPC 1860
    4. Constitution
  29. Q29. Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 (now BSA 63) deals with
    1. Hearsay evidence
    2. Admissibility of electronic records — requires certificate from a person occupying responsible official position
    3. Confessions
    4. Burden of proof
  30. Q30. Confessions made to police officers are barred under
    1. Section 22 BSA (= Section 25 IEA)
    2. Section 100
    3. Section 50
    4. Section 41
  31. Q31. Primary evidence is defined in BSA / IEA as
    1. Photocopy
    2. The document itself produced for inspection of the court
    3. Oral testimony
    4. Hearsay
  32. Q32. Lakshmi Singh v State of Bihar (1976) is a landmark on
    1. Hostile witness
    2. Secondary evidence under Section 65 IEA — non-production of primary requires explanation
    3. Confession
    4. Dying declaration
  33. Q33. Indian Contract Act 1872 Section 73 provides damages for
    1. All breaches automatically
    2. Compensation for loss naturally arising in usual course or which parties knew when contracting (Hadley v Baxendale principle)
    3. Specific performance
    4. Refund of consideration
  34. Q34. Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 deals with
    1. Frustration
    2. Liquidated damages — where contract names a sum, court awards reasonable compensation not exceeding that sum
    3. Specific performance
    4. Quantum meruit
  35. Q35. Fateh Chand v Balkishan Dass (1963) is a landmark on
    1. Coercion
    2. Section 74 ICA — distinction between liquidated damages and penalty merged; reasonable compensation must be assessed
    3. Frustration
    4. Wagering
  36. Q36. ONGC v Saw Pipes Ltd (2003) clarified that under Section 74
    1. Penalty clauses are unenforceable
    2. Where genuine pre-estimate of loss is shown by contract terms, party need not prove actual loss
    3. Damages must always be proved
    4. Section 74 has been repealed
  37. Q37. A contract becomes void by frustration under Section 56 ICA when
    1. Party defaults
    2. Performance becomes impossible or unlawful by event not contemplated by parties (supervening impossibility)
    3. One party becomes insolvent
    4. Court orders so
  38. Q38. Strict liability under Rylands v Fletcher (1868) requires
    1. Negligence
    2. Non-natural use of land + escape of dangerous thing causing damage; defendant liable without proof of negligence
    3. Intent
    4. Public nuisance
  39. Q39. The neighbour principle and modern law of negligence stems from
    1. Donoghue v Stevenson 1932 (Lord Atkin)
    2. Rylands v Fletcher 1868
    3. Heaven v Pender 1883
    4. Caparo v Dickman 1990
  40. Q40. Vicarious liability for torts of employee committed in course of employment is justified by the doctrine of
    1. Volenti non fit injuria
    2. Respondeat superior — let the master answer; loss-spreading and control rationale
    3. Damnum sine injuria
    4. Res ipsa loquitur
  41. Q41. Absolute liability principle (no exceptions even for Act of God or third-party act) was established in India in
    1. Rylands v Fletcher
    2. M C Mehta v Union of India 1987 (Oleum gas leak / Shriram Foods case)
    3. Donoghue v Stevenson
    4. Bhopal Gas Tragedy proceedings
  42. Q42. Mutual consent divorce under Hindu Marriage Act is provided in
    1. Section 9
    2. Section 13B (introduced by 1976 amendment) — requires 1 year separation + waiting period
    3. Section 24
    4. Section 7
  43. Q43. The Hindu Marriage Act 1955 applies to
    1. Christians only
    2. Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, Sikhs (and to anyone domiciled in India and not Muslim/Christian/Parsi/Jew)
    3. Muslims only
    4. Parsis only
  44. Q44. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act 2005 made daughters
    1. Excluded from coparcenary
    2. Coparceners by birth in their own right with same rights and liabilities as sons
    3. Limited heirs
    4. Class II heirs
  45. Q45. Maintenance to wife regardless of religion is provided under
    1. Section 125 CrPC (now Section 144 BNSS)
    2. Section 41
    3. Section 100
    4. Section 173
  46. Q46. Transfer of Property Act 1882 Section 5 defines transfer of property as
    1. Sale only
    2. An act by which a living person conveys property in present or in future to one or more living persons
    3. Inheritance
    4. Will
  47. Q47. Specific Relief Act 1963 was substantially amended in
    1. 1972
    2. 2018 — restricting court discretion, making specific performance the rule rather than exception
    3. 1995
    4. 2010
  48. Q48. Lis pendens doctrine under Section 52 TPA prevents
    1. All sales
    2. Transfer of immovable property by a party to pending suit so as to affect rights of any other party under decree
    3. Mortgages
    4. Leases
  49. Q49. The Constitution of India was adopted on
    1. 15 August 1947
    2. 26 November 1949 (came into force 26 January 1950)
    3. 30 January 1948
    4. 2 October 1950
  50. Q50. The 8th Schedule of the Constitution currently lists how many official languages
    1. 22
    2. 15
    3. 18
    4. 25