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Daily MCQ Paper — 5 April 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 5 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. Article 76 of the Constitution provides for
    1. Comptroller and Auditor General
    2. Attorney General of India
    3. Solicitor General
    4. Advocate General
  2. Q2. Article 88 confers right of audience in either House of Parliament on
    1. Only Ministers
    2. Every Minister and the Attorney General to speak in and take part in proceedings of either House (vote only in own House)
    3. Only PM
    4. Only AG
  3. Q3. Article 100(3) prescribes the quorum for either House of Parliament as
    1. One-tenth of total members of the House
    2. One-fourth
    3. Half
    4. One-twentieth
  4. Q4. The Attorney General under Article 76 is appointed by
    1. Parliament
    2. President of India
    3. Chief Justice
    4. Prime Minister
  5. Q5. Article 78 of the Constitution casts duties on
    1. President
    2. Prime Minister with respect to communication of Council decisions and information to the President
    3. Speaker
    4. CJI
  6. Q6. Article 101 deals with
    1. Parliamentary privileges
    2. Vacation of seats by Members of Parliament
    3. Money Bills
    4. Election of Speaker
  7. Q7. In Raja Ram Pal v Hon’ble Speaker (2007), the Supreme Court held that
    1. Parliament has no expulsion power
    2. Parliament has the inherent power to expel members for misconduct subject to limited judicial review on grounds of unconstitutionality, jurisdictional error or mala fides
    3. MPs can be expelled only by President
    4. Expulsion is unconstitutional
  8. Q8. Article 105 codifies
    1. Privileges and immunities of Parliament, MPs and parliamentary committees
    2. Election of President
    3. Money Bills
    4. Anti-defection
  9. Q9. In Kalpana Mehta v Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court ruled that
    1. Parliamentary committee reports cannot be referred to in court
    2. Parliamentary committee reports are admissible/citable in court without being a basis to question their content under Article 105
    3. Reports are inadmissible
    4. Reports bind the court
  10. Q10. Sita Soren v Union of India (2024) (7-judge bench) overruled
    1. Keshavananda Bharati
    2. P V Narasimha Rao v State (CBI) (1998) on bribery immunity for MPs
    3. Kesavananda again
    4. Maneka Gandhi
  11. Q11. Section 230 of the BNS, 2023 corresponds to which IPC provision
    1. Theft
    2. False evidence (Section 191 IPC)
    3. Defamation
    4. Forgery
  12. Q12. In State of Madhya Pradesh v Babulal (1976), the Supreme Court emphasised that for prosecution under public-servant misconduct provisions
    1. Mens rea is irrelevant
    2. Mens rea (intent to cause injury) must be specifically pleaded and proved
    3. Strict liability applies
    4. Anyone can be prosecuted
  13. Q13. BNS Sections 230-235 collectively cover
    1. Cybercrime
    2. False evidence and offences against public justice including fabrication, perjury and false statements
    3. Sedition
    4. Theft
  14. Q14. Difference between IPC 191 and BNS 230 (false evidence) is best described as
    1. Substantive difference
    2. Largely textual continuity with renumbering and slight modernisation; the offence remains the same
    3. BNS 230 abolishes the offence
    4. BNS 230 makes it a civil wrong
  15. Q15. In K Karunakaran v T V Eachara Warrier (1978), the Supreme Court ruled on
    1. Bail jurisprudence
    2. Perjury and the courts power to take cognisance of false statements made on affidavits
    3. Defamation
    4. Tort
  16. Q16. Sections 198-200 of the BNS, 2023 deal with
    1. Theft
    2. Public servant disobeying law with intent to cause injury — corresponding to Section 166-167 IPC
    3. Defamation
    4. Sedition
  17. Q17. Mens rea required for an offence under BNS Section 198-200 (public servant disobeying law) is
    1. Negligence
    2. Intent or knowledge that the disobedience is likely to cause injury to any person
    3. Strict liability
    4. None
  18. Q18. Fabricating false evidence with intent to procure conviction of capital offence under BNS 234 attracts
    1. Fine only
    2. Imprisonment for life or up to ten years and fine; if innocent person is convicted and executed, death or life imprisonment
    3. No punishment
    4. Six months only
  19. Q19. Punishment for giving false evidence in a judicial proceeding under BNS 233 is
    1. Fine only
    2. Imprisonment up to seven years and fine
    3. Death
    4. Life only
  20. Q20. BNS provision corresponding to false statement on oath/affidavit (formerly IPC 193) is
    1. BNS 217
    2. BNS 229
    3. BNS 233
    4. BNS 235
  21. Q21. In Sushila Aggarwal v State (NCT of Delhi) (2020), the Constitution Bench held that
    1. Anticipatory bail is unconstitutional
    2. Anticipatory bail need not be limited to a fixed period and can continue till end of trial unless court directs otherwise; courts can impose limited duration in special cases
    3. Bail is automatic
    4. Anticipatory bail is mandatory
  22. Q22. Section 482 of the BNSS, 2023 corresponds to
    1. Inherent powers of the High Court
    2. Anticipatory bail (formerly Section 438 CrPC)
    3. Search warrant
    4. FIR
  23. Q23. Anticipatory bail under BNSS 482 / former Section 438 CrPC may be sought
    1. After arrest
    2. Before arrest, in apprehension of arrest for non-bailable offence
    3. Only post-conviction
    4. Only at trial
  24. Q24. Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v State of Punjab (1980) is the locus classicus on
    1. Bail jurisprudence — laid down liberal interpretation of anticipatory bail without rigid time limits, later affirmed by Sushila Aggarwal
    2. Murder
    3. Theft
    4. Defamation
  25. Q25. Bail under BNSS / CrPC is generally categorised into
    1. Civil and criminal
    2. Regular bail (post-arrest), anticipatory bail (pre-arrest), interim bail (interim relief)
    3. Only one type
    4. Permanent only
  26. Q26. Conditions imposed by court while granting anticipatory bail may include
    1. Monetary fine only
    2. Cooperation with investigation, non-tampering with evidence/witnesses, attending interrogation, non-leaving territorial limits
    3. None
    4. Acquittal
  27. Q27. BNSS, 2023 came into force on
    1. 15 August 1947
    2. 1 July 2024 (replacing CrPC 1973)
    3. 26 January 1950
    4. 2 October 1962
  28. Q28. Handwriting expert evidence falls under
    1. Section 32 IEA / BSA 26
    2. Section 45 IEA / BSA 45
    3. Section 73 IEA / BSA 72
    4. Both B and C — court may also itself compare handwritings
  29. Q29. DNA evidence admissibility in India was crystallised in
    1. Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose
    2. Dharam Deo Yadav v State of UP (2014) — affirming DNA as scientifically reliable expert evidence under Section 45 IEA
    3. Maneka Gandhi
    4. Lalman Shukla
  30. Q30. In State of HP v Jai Lal (1999), the Supreme Court held on expert evidence that
    1. Expert opinion is binding on court
    2. Expert opinion is corroborative and is to be tested by the court — credentials, methodology and reasoning matter
    3. Expert opinion is irrelevant
    4. Expert can be cross-examined only by Court
  31. Q31. Section 45 of the BSA, 2023 (formerly Section 45 IEA) deals with
    1. Hearsay
    2. Opinion of experts on foreign law, science, art, handwriting, fingerprint, footprint and identity
    3. Confession
    4. Witness incompetence
  32. Q32. Best evidence rule under BSA / IEA principally requires
    1. Hearsay
    2. Production of primary (original) document where contents of a document are to be proved, with secondary evidence allowed only in defined exceptions
    3. Oral evidence only
    4. Confession
  33. Q33. Quantum meruit, recognised under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, allows
    1. Damages
    2. Recovery for the value of work done where one party has lawfully done something for another not intending to do so gratuitously and the other has enjoyed the benefit
    3. Specific performance
    4. Injunction
  34. Q34. Privity of contract means
    1. Contract is private
    2. Only parties to the contract can sue or be sued upon it
    3. Contract is public
    4. None
  35. Q35. A contract by a minor under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is
    1. Voidable
    2. Void ab initio (Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose, 1903)
    3. Valid
    4. Enforceable at minor’s option
  36. Q36. Section 23 of the Contract Act voids agreements whose consideration or object is
    1. Lawful
    2. Forbidden by law, fraudulent, immoral, opposed to public policy or causing injury to person/property
    3. Just
    4. Customary
  37. Q37. Doctrine of frustration in Indian Contract Act is recognised under
    1. Section 56
    2. Section 73
    3. Section 23
    4. Section 10
  38. Q38. Strict liability under Rylands v Fletcher (1868) requires
    1. Negligence
    2. Non-natural use of land + escape of dangerous thing causing harm; defendant liable without proof of negligence
    3. Trespass
    4. Mens rea
  39. Q39. Tort of negligence requires the plaintiff to prove
    1. Duty of care, breach of duty, and damage caused by the breach
    2. Only damage
    3. Only intent
    4. Mens rea
  40. Q40. Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) is famous for
    1. Sale of goods
    2. The neighbour principle and modern tort of negligence (snail in ginger beer bottle)
    3. Defamation
    4. Trespass
  41. Q41. Absolute liability principle in M C Mehta v Union of India (1986) (Oleum gas leak) differs from Rylands strict liability in that
    1. Defences are wider
    2. Defences are not available — enterprise running hazardous activity is absolutely liable for any harm caused
    3. It is identical
    4. It does not apply in India
  42. Q42. Triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) was declared unconstitutional in
    1. Shayara Bano v Union of India (2017)
    2. Mohori Bibee
    3. Shah Bano
    4. Maneka Gandhi
  43. Q43. Restitution of conjugal rights under HMA 1955 is provided in
    1. Section 9
    2. Section 13
    3. Section 5
    4. Section 7
  44. Q44. Section 125 CrPC (now Section 144 BNSS) provides for
    1. Maintenance of wife, children and parents who are unable to maintain themselves
    2. Adoption
    3. Marriage registration
    4. Divorce
  45. Q45. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to
    1. Only Hindus by religion
    2. Hindus, Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs (and any person not a Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew)
    3. Only Sikhs
    4. Only Buddhists
  46. Q46. A lease of immovable property for a term exceeding one year requires
    1. No registration
    2. Registration under the Registration Act, 1908
    3. Stamp duty only
    4. None
  47. Q47. Doctrine of part-performance under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 protects
    1. Buyer in possession under an unregistered written agreement of sale who has performed/is willing to perform his part — against the seller
    2. Only registered transferees
    3. Only mortgagee
    4. None
  48. Q48. Specific Relief Act, 1963, after the 2018 amendment, treats specific performance as
    1. Discretionary
    2. A general rule (substituting damages as a default) with limited statutorily-defined exceptions
    3. Discretionary as before
    4. Abolished
  49. Q49. India’s G20 Presidency 2023 culminated with the Leaders’ Summit at
    1. Bali
    2. New Delhi (Bharat Mandapam, 9-10 September 2023)
    3. Rome
    4. Osaka
  50. Q50. Choose the grammatically correct sentence
    1. He don’t know
    2. He doesn’t know
    3. He doesn’t knows
    4. He do not knows