Haryana Superior Judicial Service (HSJS) — Prelims Pattern Mock 4 (100 Questions)

Q1. [CPC] For res judicata to apply, the former court must have been competent to try the:

• A. Appeal only
• B. Subsequent suit or the subsequent issue
• C. Only the earlier suit regardless of the later suit
• D. Execution proceeding alone

Q2. [CPC] Under Section 20 CPC, a suit may be instituted where the:

• A. Plaintiff resides only
• B. Defendant resides, carries on business, or where the cause of action wholly or in part arises
• C. Registrar of the High Court sits
• D. Advocate for the plaintiff practises

Q3. [CPC] A counter-claim under Order 8 Rule 6A CPC may be set up against a claim of the plaintiff:

• A. Only if it arises before the plaintiff’s cause of action
• B. In respect of any right or claim, whether arising before or after filing of suit but before the defendant has delivered his defence
• C. Only after the decree is passed
• D. Only in a summary suit

Q4. [CPC] Amendment of pleadings under the proviso to Order 6 Rule 17 CPC shall not be allowed after commencement of trial unless the court concludes that:

• A. The opposite party consents in writing
• B. In spite of due diligence the party could not have raised the matter before trial commenced
• C. The amendment is trivial
• D. The suit is a summary suit

Q5. [CPC] The inherent powers of the court under Section 151 CPC:

• A. Confer substantive jurisdiction not otherwise vested
• B. Are saved to make orders necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of process, but do not override express provisions
• C. Can be used to grant a decree without a suit
• D. Override the law of limitation

Q6. [CPC] The memorandum of second appeal under Section 100(3) CPC must precisely state the:

• A. Grounds of fact relied on
• B. Substantial question of law involved in the appeal
• C. Amount of court fee paid
• D. Address of the respondents

Q7. [CPC] Questions relating to execution, discharge or satisfaction of a decree between the parties are to be determined under Section 47 CPC by:

• A. A separate suit
• B. The executing court and not by a separate suit
• C. The appellate court only
• D. Arbitration

Q8. [CPC] Under Section 2(14) CPC an order means the formal expression of any decision of a civil court which is:

• A. Always appealable
• B. Not a decree
• C. The same as a judgment
• D. A preliminary determination only

Q9. [CPC] The court may issue a commission under Order 26 CPC for all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Examination of a witness unable to attend court
• B. Making a local investigation
• C. Deciding a substantial question of law in the suit
• D. Examination or adjustment of accounts

Q10. [CPC] In a summary suit under Order 37 CPC, the defendant is not entitled to defend the suit unless he:

• A. Files a written statement within thirty days automatically
• B. Enters an appearance and obtains leave to defend within the prescribed time
• C. Deposits the entire suit amount
• D. Serves a legal notice on the plaintiff

Q11. [CPC] A judgment debtor may be arrested and detained in civil prison in execution of a money decree, but under the proviso to Section 51 CPC such detention requires the court to record reasons and be satisfied that the debtor:

• A. Is a habitual defaulter
• B. Has means to pay and refuses or neglects, or has dishonestly transferred property, or the decree is for a fiduciary breach
• C. Owns immovable property
• D. Has appealed against the decree

Q12. [Limitation] Section 6 of the Limitation Act extends time for a person under a legal disability such as minority or insanity, allowing him to institute the suit or make the application after the disability ceases within the:

• A. Same period as if no disability existed
• B. Same period as would otherwise have been allowed from the time the disability ceased
• C. Double the ordinary period
• D. A fixed period of twelve years

Q13. [Limitation] Under Section 19 of the Limitation Act, part payment of a debt gives a fresh starting point of limitation only if:

• A. The payment is made after limitation has expired
• B. An acknowledgement of the payment appears in the handwriting of, or in a writing signed by, the person making the payment
• C. The creditor issues a receipt
• D. The payment is made by a stranger

Q14. [Limitation] An easement is acquired by prescription under Section 25 of the Limitation Act by peaceable enjoyment as of right, without interruption, as an easement for a period of:

• A. Twelve years
• B. Twenty years (thirty years against government)
• C. Thirty years universally
• D. Sixty years

Q15. [Specific Relief] Under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, a person entitled to possession of specific immovable property may recover it:

• A. Only by a summary suit
• B. In the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, i.e. on the strength of title
• C. Only under Section 6
• D. By self-help alone

Q16. [Specific Relief] Under Section 15 of the Specific Relief Act, specific performance of a contract may be obtained by, among others:

• A. A stranger to the contract in all cases
• B. Any party to the contract, or the representative in interest or principal of any party subject to stated conditions
• C. Only the promisee personally
• D. A person who has repudiated the contract

Q17. [Specific Relief] Where a decree for specific performance of a contract for sale is not complied with, the court may under Section 28 of the Specific Relief Act, on application in the same suit:

• A. Only initiate contempt
• B. Rescind the contract and order restoration, or extend time for payment
• C. Direct a fresh suit
• D. Refer to arbitration

Q18. [Specific Relief] Perpetual injunction under Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act is granted to prevent the breach of an obligation existing in favour of the plaintiff, and where the obligation arises from contract, the court is guided by the rules in:

• A. Chapter II relating to specific performance
• B. Order 39 CPC
• C. Section 6 of the Act
• D. The Indian Contract Act only

Q19. [Specific Relief] The Specific Relief (Amendment) Act 2018 introduced special provisions requiring designation of Special Courts and time-bound disposal in respect of suits relating to:

• A. Matrimonial disputes
• B. Contracts relating to infrastructure projects specified in the Schedule
• C. Consumer complaints
• D. Tenancy matters

Q20. [BNS 2023] Mistake of law, as distinct from mistake of fact, is generally:

• A. A complete defence
• B. No defence, on the maxim ignorantia juris non excusat
• C. A partial defence reducing sentence
• D. Available only to public servants

Q21. [BNS 2023] The doctrine of doli incapax under BNS applies to a child above seven and under twelve years who has:

• A. Committed the act in a public place
• B. Not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct
• C. Acted with a weapon
• D. Acted with an adult accomplice

Q22. [BNS 2023] Consent given by a person under twelve years of age or by a person of unsound mind is, for the purposes of the consent exceptions:

• A. Fully valid
• B. Not a valid consent
• C. Valid only for medical acts
• D. Valid if a guardian is present

Q23. [BNS 2023] The right of private defence of property against theft continues until:

• A. The offender has been arrested
• B. The offender has effected his retreat with the property or assistance of public authorities is obtained
• C. A month has passed
• D. The property is insured

Q24. [BNS 2023] For criminal conspiracy under BNS, an agreement by two or more persons to do an illegal act is punishable, and where the object is to commit an offence, the agreement is:

• A. Not punishable until the act is done
• B. Itself sufficient without any overt act
• C. Punishable only if property is involved
• D. Punishable only against the leader

Q25. [BNS 2023] The exception for exceeding the right of private defence reduces murder to culpable homicide not amounting to murder where the offender:

• A. Acted for gain
• B. In good faith exceeded the power given by the right of private defence without premeditation and without intending more harm than necessary
• C. Had a written plan
• D. Acted against a child

Q26. [BNS 2023] Causing death by a rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide is a distinct offence under BNS, and where the death is caused by rash or negligent driving, BNS provides:

• A. No separate punishment
• B. Enhanced provisions including for hit-and-run where the driver escapes without reporting
• C. The same as murder
• D. Only a fine

Q27. [BNS 2023] Kidnapping from India under BNS means conveying a person beyond the limits of India:

• A. With consent lawfully given
• B. Without the consent of that person or of a person legally authorised to consent on his behalf
• C. For employment abroad
• D. Only if minor

Q28. [BNS 2023] Dacoity under BNS is constituted when the number of persons conjointly committing or attempting robbery, including those present and aiding, is:

• A. Two or more
• B. Three or more
• C. Five or more
• D. Ten or more

Q29. [BNS 2023] House-trespass is a form of criminal trespass where the entry or unlawful remaining is into or upon:

• A. Any open field
• B. A building, tent or vessel used as a human dwelling or as a place for worship or custody of property
• C. A moving vehicle only
• D. A public road

Q30. [BNS 2023] An accused charged with defamation who has expressed in good faith an opinion on the conduct of a public servant in the discharge of his public functions may claim:

• A. No defence
• B. The exception of fair comment on a public servant’s public conduct
• C. The exception of accident
• D. The exception of necessity

Q31. [BNS 2023] A new form of punishment introduced by BNS, distinct from imprisonment and fine, is:

• A. Solitary confinement
• B. Community service
• C. Transportation for life
• D. Forfeiture of property

Q32. [BNSS 2023] BNSS provides for registration of an FIR by electronic means, and for information relating to a cognizable offence given electronically to be:

• A. Ignored until in writing
• B. Taken on record on being signed within a specified period by the person giving it
• C. Registered only by a magistrate
• D. Treated as a non-cognizable report

Q33. [BNSS 2023] Anticipatory bail is a direction that in the event of arrest a person shall be released on bail, and it is sought where a person apprehends arrest on accusation of:

• A. A bailable offence
• B. A non-bailable offence
• C. A petty offence
• D. A civil wrong

Q34. [BNSS 2023] Cognizance of an offence by a Magistrate means:

• A. Passing the final sentence
• B. Taking judicial notice of the offence so as to proceed, on receiving a complaint, police report, or information
• C. Recording the FIR
• D. Releasing the accused on bail

Q35. [BNSS 2023] The examination of the accused, at which the court questions him on the circumstances appearing in the evidence against him, is conducted:

• A. On oath, and refusal is punishable
• B. Without administering an oath, and the accused shall not render himself liable to punishment by refusing to answer
• C. Only through counsel
• D. Before the charge is framed

Q36. [BNSS 2023] A reference to the High Court is made where a court, in a pending case, entertains doubt as to the validity of a law and wishes to have the question decided, whereas revision is:

• A. An appeal on facts
• B. The High Court’s or Sessions Court’s power to examine the correctness, legality or propriety of an order or proceeding of a subordinate court
• C. A retrial
• D. A review of its own judgment

Q37. [BNSS 2023] BNSS makes forensic investigation, including visit of a forensic expert to the scene to collect evidence, mandatory for offences punishable with imprisonment of:

• A. Three years or more
• B. Five years or more
• C. Seven years or more
• D. Any imprisonment

Q38. [BNSS 2023] A Judicial Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years and a fine, whereas the Court of Session may pass any lawful sentence, subject to:

• A. No limit at all
• B. A death sentence requiring confirmation by the High Court
• C. Approval of the police
• D. The consent of the accused

Q39. [Evidence/BSA] So much of information received from an accused in custody as distinctly leads to the discovery of a fact is admissible under the BSA provision corresponding to old Section 27. This is because the discovery:

• A. Cures the whole confession
• B. Guarantees an acquittal
• C. Furnishes a guarantee of the truth of that portion
• D. Is opinion evidence

Q40. [Evidence/BSA] Primary evidence, under the BSA, means:

• A. A certified copy
• B. The document itself produced for inspection
• C. Oral account of contents
• D. A photocopy

Q41. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, an accomplice is a competent witness, but as a rule of prudence courts look for:

• A. A written confession
• B. Corroboration in material particulars
• C. A dying declaration
• D. Two accomplices

Q42. [Evidence/BSA] Facts showing motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct of a party are, under the BSA:

• A. Irrelevant
• B. Relevant
• C. Conclusive proof
• D. Privileged

Q43. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, where a person by his declaration, act or omission has intentionally caused another to believe a thing to be true and act on it, he is not allowed to deny its truth; this doctrine is:

• A. Res judicata
• B. Estoppel
• C. Waiver
• D. Merger

Q44. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, public documents include:

• A. A private letter
• B. Records of acts of public officers and public records of private documents
• C. A personal diary
• D. An unregistered agreement

Q45. [Evidence/BSA] No public officer shall, under the BSA, be compelled to disclose communications made to him in official confidence when he considers that:

• A. Disclosure helps the accused
• B. Public interests would suffer by the disclosure
• C. The court has jurisdiction
• D. The witness objects

Q46. [Evidence/BSA] For an electronic record produced as evidence under the BSA, a certificate identifying the record and describing the manner of its production is required to be:

• A. Optional in all cases
• B. Furnished as prescribed to render the electronic record admissible
• C. Signed by the accused
• D. Filed after trial only

Q47. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, once the initial burden is discharged, the burden of proof may:

• A. Never shift
• B. Shift from one party to the other as the case progresses
• C. Vanish
• D. Become conclusive

Q48. [Constitution] Under Article 12, the expression ‘the State’ includes the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of each State and:

• A. Only the executive
• B. All local or other authorities within India or under the control of the Government of India
• C. Private companies
• D. Foreign states

Q49. [Constitution] The right to privacy was declared a fundamental right under Article 21 by a nine-judge Bench in:

• A. ADM Jabalpur
• B. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
• C. Gopalan
• D. Kharak Singh

Q50. [Constitution] Reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression may be imposed under Article 19(2) on grounds including sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State and:

• A. Party interest
• B. Public order, decency or morality
• C. Personal convenience
• D. Executive discretion

Q51. [Constitution] The protections in Article 22(1) and (2) do not apply to a person who is:

• A. A minor
• B. An enemy alien or one detained under a preventive detention law
• C. A first-time offender
• D. A foreign tourist

Q52. [Constitution] The writ issued to command a public authority to perform a public or statutory duty it has failed to perform is:

• A. Habeas corpus
• B. Mandamus
• C. Certiorari
• D. Quo warranto

Q53. [Constitution] The Directive Principles of State Policy, contained in Part IV, are:

• A. Enforceable by courts
• B. Not enforceable by any court but fundamental in governance
• C. Justiciable Fundamental Rights
• D. Part of the Preamble

Q54. [Constitution] In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the proclamation of President’s Rule under Article 356 is:

• A. Wholly non-justiciable
• B. Subject to judicial review
• C. Conclusive if approved by Parliament
• D. Permanent

Q55. [Constitution] Control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including posting, promotion and grant of leave to persons belonging to the judicial service, is vested by Article 235 in the:

• A. State Government
• B. High Court
• C. Governor
• D. Law Minister

Q56. [Constitution] When only a part of a statute is unconstitutional, the valid part may be retained if separable; this is the doctrine of:

• A. Severability
• B. Eclipse
• C. Territorial nexus
• D. Repugnancy

Q57. [Constitution] Right to livelihood has been read by the Supreme Court as a facet of the right to life under Article 21 in cases such as:

• A. Golaknath
• B. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
• C. Champakam Dorairajan
• D. A.K. Gopalan

Q58. [Contract] The communication of a proposal is complete when:

• A. It is put in the course of transmission to the offeree
• B. It comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made
• C. The offeror posts the letter
• D. The offeree begins to consider it

Q59. [Contract] Past consideration is:

• A. No consideration and hence unenforceable in India
• B. A valid consideration under Indian law
• C. Valid only in commercial contracts
• D. Void under Section 25

Q60. [Contract] Consent is said to be ‘free’ when it is not caused by:

• A. Coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake
• B. Only coercion and fraud
• C. Only undue influence
• D. Only mistake of law

Q61. [Contract] An agreement is void where both parties are under a mistake as to:

• A. A matter of fact essential to the agreement
• B. The law in force in India
• C. A matter of foreign law that is immaterial
• D. Their own opinion

Q62. [Contract] An agreement that wholly restrains a party from enforcing his rights under a contract through the ordinary tribunals is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void under Section 28
• C. Voidable
• D. Valid if time-limited

Q63. [Contract] A finder of goods belonging to another and taking them into his custody is subject to:

• A. The responsibilities of a bailee
• B. No duty whatsoever
• C. The rights of an owner
• D. The duties of an agent

Q64. [Contract] The substitution of a new contract for an existing one, with the consent of all parties, is called:

• A. Rescission
• B. Novation
• C. Alteration
• D. Remission

Q65. [Contract] A contract of indemnity, under Section 124, is one by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused by:

• A. The conduct of the promisor himself or any other person
• B. Only natural calamities
• C. Only the acts of a third person under guarantee
• D. The promisee’s own default

Q66. [Contract] A surety who has paid the guaranteed debt is invested with all the rights the creditor had against the principal debtor. This right is:

• A. Subrogation under Section 140
• B. Marshalling
• C. Set-off
• D. Contribution

Q67. [Contract] Where an act is done by a person on behalf of another without authority, and that other subsequently accepts it, the act is said to be:

• A. Void
• B. Ratified under Section 196
• C. Illegal
• D. Voidable

Q68. [Property] A mere chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate (spes successionis):

• A. May be transferred
• B. Cannot be transferred
• C. May be gifted only
• D. May be leased

Q69. [Property] A vested interest is one where:

• A. The right to enjoyment depends on a condition that may never happen
• B. There is no condition, or the condition is certain to happen, and the interest is not defeated by the owner’s death before enjoyment
• C. Enjoyment is postponed indefinitely
• D. The interest can never pass to heirs

Q70. [Property] The doctrine of lis pendens under Section 52 provides that during the pendency of a suit relating to immovable property, the property cannot be transferred so as to:

• A. Affect the rights of any party under the court’s decree
• B. Bind the transferee at all
• C. Extinguish the plaintiff’s claim
• D. Prevent registration

Q71. [Property] In the absence of a contract to the contrary, the seller is bound to disclose to the buyer any material defect in the property of which:

• A. The buyer is aware
• B. The seller is aware and the buyer is not, and which the buyer could not ordinarily discover
• C. Neither party is aware
• D. Only third parties are aware

Q72. [Property] In an English mortgage, the mortgagor binds himself to repay on a certain date and transfers the property absolutely to the mortgagee, subject to:

• A. A proviso to re-transfer on payment
• B. No condition
• C. Forfeiture on default
• D. The mortgagee’s discretion

Q73. [Property] A mortgagee’s right, on default, to obtain a decree that the mortgagor be absolutely debarred of his right to redeem, is:

• A. Foreclosure under Section 67
• B. Sale
• C. Redemption
• D. Marshalling

Q74. [Property] A lease of immovable property determines, among other ways, by:

• A. Efflux of the time limited, or on the happening of a specified event
• B. Only by mutual consent
• C. Only by the lessor’s death
• D. Registration of a fresh deed

Q75. [Property] Where a gift is made of several things, one of which is burdened with an obligation (onerous gift), the donee:

• A. Can take only the beneficial items
• B. Can take nothing if he does not accept the burdened one, where the gift is a single transfer
• C. Must pay compensation
• D. Is not bound by the obligation

Q76. [Property] Property of any kind may be transferred under Section 6 except:

• A. As otherwise provided by the Act or any other law for the time being in force
• B. Movable property in all cases
• C. Property already sold
• D. Agricultural land

Q77. [Torts] ‘Injuria sine damno’ is best illustrated by:

• A. Gloucester Grammar School case
• B. Ashby v White
• C. Rylands v Fletcher
• D. Bhim Singh v State of J&K

Q78. [Torts] The neighbour principle in the law of negligence originates from:

• A. Donoghue v Stevenson
• B. Wagon Mound
• C. Ashby v White
• D. Rookes v Barnard

Q79. [Torts] The test of remoteness of damage in tort was settled as reasonable foreseeability in:

• A. Re Polemis
• B. The Wagon Mound (No. 1)
• C. Rylands v Fletcher
• D. Donoghue v Stevenson

Q80. [Torts] Nervous shock as a tort is actionable when it results in:

• A. Mere mental grief
• B. A recognisable psychiatric illness caused by the defendant
• C. A trivial fright only
• D. Breach of promise

Q81. [Commercial] A cheque is a bill of exchange drawn on:

• A. Any person
• B. A specified banker and payable on demand
• C. A trading company
• D. The government treasury

Q82. [Commercial] The doctrine of ‘Kompetenz-Kompetenz’ under Section 16 empowers the arbitral tribunal to:

• A. Enforce its own award
• B. Rule on its own jurisdiction
• C. Appoint the court
• D. Waive limitation

Q83. [Commercial] The Committee of Creditors under the IBC is primarily composed of:

• A. Operational creditors
• B. Financial creditors
• C. Shareholders
• D. The corporate debtor’s directors

Q84. [Commercial] ‘Lifting the corporate veil’ is invoked to:

• A. Increase share capital
• B. Disregard separate personality to reach the persons behind
• C. Register a company
• D. Wind up voluntarily

Q85. [Commercial] The doctrine of ‘caveat emptor’ places the primary duty on the:

• A. Seller to disclose all defects
• B. Buyer to examine the goods
• C. State to inspect
• D. Manufacturer to insure

Q86. [Haryana Local Law] Grounds of eviction of a tenant in urban Haryana are prescribed by the:

• A. Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887
• B. East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act, 1949
• C. Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1887
• D. Punjab Courts Act, 1918

Q87. [Haryana Local Law] The statutory right of pre-emption in Haryana derives from the:

• A. Punjab Pre-emption Act, 1913
• B. East Punjab Rent Act
• C. Haryana Panchayati Raj Act
• D. Punjab Courts Act

Q88. [Haryana Local Law] Management and regulation of village common land (shamlat deh) in Haryana is under the:

• A. Punjab Village Common Lands (Regulation) Act, 1961
• B. East Punjab Rent Act
• C. Punjab Courts Act
• D. Pre-emption Act

Q89. [Haryana Local Law] The pecuniary and appellate jurisdiction of the District Judge in Haryana is structured by the:

• A. East Punjab Rent Act
• B. Punjab Courts Act, 1918
• C. Punjab Land Revenue Act
• D. Pre-emption Act

Q90. [Haryana Local Law] Recovery of land revenue and the record-of-rights (jamabandi) machinery in Haryana operate under the:

• A. Punjab Tenancy Act
• B. Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1887
• C. East Punjab Rent Act
• D. Courts Act

Q91. [Haryana Local Law] Rights and obligations of occupancy and other tenants of agricultural land in Haryana are governed by the:

• A. Punjab Pre-emption Act
• B. Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887
• C. East Punjab Rent Act
• D. HDRUA

Q92. [Haryana Local Law] Ceiling on agricultural landholdings in Haryana is imposed by the:

• A. East Punjab Rent Act
• B. Haryana Ceiling on Land Holdings Act, 1972
• C. Punjab Courts Act
• D. Pre-emption Act

Q93. [Haryana Local Law] Development of urban areas and licensing of colonies in Haryana is regulated by the:

• A. Punjab Land Revenue Act
• B. Haryana Development and Regulation of Urban Areas Act, 1975
• C. East Punjab Rent Act
• D. Punjab Tenancy Act

Q94. [Haryana Local Law] The High Court exercising jurisdiction over Haryana is the:

• A. Delhi High Court
• B. Punjab and Haryana High Court
• C. Rajasthan High Court
• D. Himachal Pradesh High Court

Q95. [Haryana Local Law] A pre-emptor must possess the superior right both at the date of sale and the date of:

• A. Registration only
• B. Decree
• C. FIR
• D. Mutation

Q96. [Haryana Local Law] Consolidation of agricultural holdings in Haryana to prevent fragmentation is carried out under the:

• A. East Punjab Rent Act
• B. East Punjab Holdings (Consolidation and Prevention of Fragmentation) Act, 1948
• C. Pre-emption Act
• D. Punjab Courts Act

Q97. [Haryana Local Law] Time-bound delivery of notified public services to citizens of Haryana is guaranteed by the:

• A. Punjab Land Revenue Act
• B. Haryana Right to Service Act, 2014
• C. East Punjab Rent Act
• D. HDRUA

Q98. [Haryana Local Law] Eviction on the ground that the landlord requires the premises for his own occupation is a ground under the:

• A. Pre-emption Act
• B. East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act, 1949
• C. Punjab Courts Act
• D. Punjab Tenancy Act

Q99. [Haryana Local Law] A ‘kanungo’ in the Haryana revenue hierarchy supervises the work of:

• A. District Judges
• B. Patwaris of a circle
• C. Rent Controllers
• D. Advocates

Q100. [Haryana Local Law] The proper forum for a rent-eviction petition under the East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act in Haryana is the:

• A. Civil Judge (Senior Division)
• B. Rent Controller
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Collector