Rajasthan (RHC) District Judge — Prelims Pattern Mock 4 (100 Questions)

Q1. [CPC] Constructive res judicata is embodied in which part of Section 11 CPC?

• A. Explanation I
• B. Explanation IV
• C. Explanation VI
• D. The main body of Section 11

Q2. [CPC] A suit for compensation for wrong done to immovable property, where the property is situate within the jurisdiction of one court and the defendant resides within another, may under Section 16 proviso be instituted in the court within whose jurisdiction:

• A. Only the property is situate
• B. The defendant resides, if relief can be entirely obtained through his personal obedience
• C. The plaintiff resides
• D. The cause of action last arose

Q3. [CPC] Equitable set-off differs from legal set-off in that it:

• A. Requires an ascertained sum
• B. May be claimed for an unascertained sum arising from the same transaction
• C. Is governed by Order 8 Rule 6
• D. Can never be claimed in an equity court

Q4. [CPC] A representative suit under Order 1 Rule 8 CPC may be filed where numerous persons have the same interest, with the:

• A. Consent of every such person
• B. Permission of the court or direction of the court, and after notice to those interested
• C. Sanction of the Advocate General
• D. Prior decree of a competent court

Q5. [CPC] After the 2002 amendment, a revision under Section 115 CPC shall not vary or reverse an order made in the course of a suit unless the order, if allowed to stand, would:

• A. Cause hardship to the applicant
• B. Occasion a failure of justice or cause irreparable injury
• C. Delay the disposal of the suit
• D. Increase the court fee payable

Q6. [CPC] A second appeal under Section 100 CPC lies to the High Court only if the case involves a:

• A. Substantial question of law
• B. Substantial question of fact
• C. Mixed question of fact and law of any nature
• D. Question of quantum of damages

Q7. [CPC] Execution of a decree under Section 38 CPC may be ordered by the court which passed it or by:

• A. The High Court alone
• B. The court to which it is sent for execution
• C. Any civil court in India at the decree-holder’s choice
• D. The collector in every case

Q8. [CPC] A decree is defined in Section 2(2) CPC as the formal expression of an adjudication which conclusively determines the rights of parties, and it:

• A. Includes the rejection of a plaint but not preliminary decrees
• B. Includes the rejection of a plaint and the determination of any question under Section 144, but excludes adjudications from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order
• C. Includes every interlocutory order
• D. Is the same as a judgment

Q9. [CPC] Restitution under Section 144 CPC is granted where a decree is varied or reversed, so as to place the parties in the position they would have occupied but for the:

• A. Fresh suit filed by the plaintiff
• B. Decree or part thereof which has been varied or reversed
• C. Compromise between the parties
• D. Order of the executing court

Q10. [CPC] A summary suit under Order 37 CPC is available in respect of suits upon:

• A. Title to immovable property
• B. Bills of exchange, hundis, promissory notes, or a debt or liquidated demand in money arising on a written contract, enactment or guarantee
• C. Tort claims for damages
• D. Suits for specific performance

Q11. [CPC] Under Order 7 Rule 11 CPC, a plaint shall be rejected where:

• A. The defendant fails to appear
• B. It does not disclose a cause of action or is barred by any law
• C. The suit is undervalued but corrected in time
• D. The plaintiff is a minor

Q12. [Limitation] The expression sufficient cause under Section 5 of the Limitation Act has generally been construed by courts:

• A. Strictly against the applicant
• B. Liberally to advance substantial justice where no negligence or mala fides is imputable
• C. As requiring proof beyond reasonable doubt
• D. As excluding all illness of the party

Q13. [Limitation] For a valid acknowledgement under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, the acknowledgement must be:

• A. Oral before witnesses
• B. In writing and signed by the party against whom the right is claimed or his agent, made before the period expires
• C. Registered
• D. Made after the limitation expires

Q14. [Limitation] Under Section 15 of the Limitation Act, in computing limitation, the period during which an injunction or order stays the institution of a suit shall be:

• A. Counted against the plaintiff
• B. Excluded
• C. Doubled
• D. Treated as acknowledgement

Q15. [Specific Relief] A person dispossessed of immovable property without his consent otherwise than in due course of law may recover possession under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, and such suit must be brought within:

• A. One year from the date of dispossession, and not against the Government
• B. Three years
• C. Six months only
• D. Twelve years

Q16. [Specific Relief] A contract which is in its nature determinable is, under Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act:

• A. Specifically enforceable
• B. Not specifically enforceable
• C. Enforceable only with damages
• D. Enforceable against the Government only

Q17. [Specific Relief] Under Section 27 of the Specific Relief Act, rescission of a contract may be adjudged where the contract is:

• A. Fully performed by both sides
• B. Voidable or terminable by the plaintiff, or unlawful for causes not apparent on its face and the defendant is more to blame
• C. Merely inconvenient
• D. Barred by limitation

Q18. [Specific Relief] A declaration made under Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act is binding, by virtue of Section 35, only on:

• A. The whole world
• B. The parties to the suit, persons claiming through them, and where a party is a trustee, the persons for whom he would be trustee
• C. The State alone
• D. Future purchasers with notice

Q19. [Specific Relief] Under Section 42 of the Specific Relief Act, where a contract comprises an affirmative agreement to do a certain act coupled with a negative agreement not to do a certain act, the circumstance that the court is unable to compel performance of the affirmative agreement:

• A. Bars enforcement of the negative agreement
• B. Shall not preclude it from granting an injunction to perform the negative agreement
• C. Requires damages instead
• D. Makes the whole contract void

Q20. [BNS 2023] Under the general exceptions in BNS, an act done by a person bound by law, or who by reason of a mistake of fact in good faith believes himself bound by law, is:

• A. A punishable wrong
• B. No offence
• C. An offence but with reduced punishment
• D. Culpable homicide

Q21. [BNS 2023] Under BNS, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under what age?

• A. Six years
• B. Seven years
• C. Ten years
• D. Twelve years

Q22. [BNS 2023] Consent as a general exception under BNS does not extend to:

• A. Harm which the doer knew to be likely to cause death or grievous hurt given without such intent for the person’s benefit in good faith
• B. Causing death, except where death is the intended consequence explicitly permitted
• C. Acts done in good faith for a person’s benefit
• D. Communication made in good faith

Q23. [BNS 2023] The right of private defence against an act of a public servant acting in good faith under colour of his office is:

• A. Absolute
• B. Not available unless the act causes reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt
• C. Available only against police
• D. Available in every case

Q24. [BNS 2023] Abetment under BNS may be by instigation, by engaging in a conspiracy, or by:

• A. Silent presence
• B. Intentionally aiding by any act or illegal omission
• C. Reporting to police
• D. Publishing a book

Q25. [BNS 2023] Under the grave and sudden provocation exception, culpable homicide is not murder if the offender is deprived of self-control by provocation which is:

• A. Sought by the offender as an excuse
• B. Grave and sudden, not sought or voluntarily provoked
• C. Given by a public servant lawfully acting
• D. Trivial and remote

Q26. [BNS 2023] Permanent privation of the sight of either eye is classified under BNS as:

• A. Simple hurt
• B. Grievous hurt
• C. Assault
• D. Mischief

Q27. [BNS 2023] Snatching, newly introduced as a distinct offence in BNS, involves:

• A. Any theft in a dwelling
• B. Sudden or quick or forcible seizure or grabbing of movable property from a person or its possession
• C. Extortion by threat
• D. Cheating by personation

Q28. [BNS 2023] Robbery is theft or extortion aggravated by the offender’s voluntarily causing or attempting to cause, at the time, death, hurt, or wrongful restraint, or fear thereof. Robbery is thus:

• A. Always dacoity
• B. Theft or extortion in a specified aggravated form
• C. Only committed at night
• D. Cheating with violence

Q29. [BNS 2023] Criminal trespass is entering into or upon property in possession of another with intent to commit an offence or to:

• A. Repair the property
• B. Intimidate, insult or annoy any person in possession of the property
• C. Deliver a notice
• D. Take a photograph

Q30. [BNS 2023] It is an exception to defamation to impute anything which is true concerning any person, if it is:

• A. Made for personal revenge
• B. For the public good that the imputation should be made or published
• C. Made anonymously
• D. Made to a single friend

Q31. [BNS 2023] Affray is committed when two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace. Its distinguishing feature is that it must occur:

• A. In private
• B. In a public place disturbing public peace
• C. During a riot only
• D. With deadly weapons only

Q32. [BNSS 2023] A Zero FIR, expressly recognised under BNSS, permits an FIR to be registered:

• A. Only at the police station within whose jurisdiction the offence occurred
• B. At any police station irrespective of territorial jurisdiction, and then transferred to the competent station
• C. Only after a magistrate’s order
• D. Only for bailable offences

Q33. [BNSS 2023] In bailable offences under BNSS, the grant of bail is:

• A. Discretionary with the court
• B. A matter of right, and bail shall be granted
• C. Available only to women
• D. Barred until charge is framed

Q34. [BNSS 2023] Police custody of an accused, as part of the total remand period, may be authorised by a Magistrate but any single spell of detention in custody at a time shall not exceed:

• A. Seven days
• B. Fifteen days
• C. Thirty days
• D. Sixty days

Q35. [BNSS 2023] Plea bargaining under BNSS is not available where the offence:

• A. Is punishable with a fine only
• B. Affects the socio-economic condition of the country or is committed against a woman or a child below a specified age, or is punishable with death or life or imprisonment above the prescribed limit
• C. Is a first offence
• D. Is compoundable

Q36. [BNSS 2023] An appeal ordinarily lies against a conviction, and no appeal lies where the accused pleads guilty and is convicted, except as to:

• A. The finding of guilt
• B. The extent or legality of the sentence
• C. The credibility of witnesses
• D. The framing of charge

Q37. [BNSS 2023] The provision for disputes concerning immovable property likely to cause a breach of the peace, successor to the old section 145 CrPC, empowers a Magistrate to:

• A. Decide title to the property finally
• B. Inquire into the fact of actual possession and pass an order preserving possession pending a competent court’s decision
• C. Order eviction summarily
• D. Register the sale deed

Q38. [BNSS 2023] A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment, but not for a term exceeding:

• A. Three years
• B. Seven years
• C. Ten years
• D. Life

Q39. [Evidence/BSA] A confession made by an accused person while in the custody of a police officer is, under the BSA, generally:

• A. Fully admissible
• B. Inadmissible unless recorded before a Magistrate
• C. Admissible against co-accused only
• D. Presumed true

Q40. [Evidence/BSA] The BSA now treats an electronic record produced from proper custody, subject to the required certificate, as:

• A. Secondary evidence only
• B. Inadmissible
• C. On par with primary/document evidence
• D. Hearsay

Q41. [Evidence/BSA] Communications made during marriage between spouses are, under the BSA, protected such that a person cannot be compelled to disclose them, subject to exceptions in:

• A. All proceedings
• B. Suits between the married persons or prosecutions of one for a crime against the other
• C. No case
• D. Only civil suits

Q42. [Evidence/BSA] A witness may, under the BSA, refresh his memory by referring to a writing made:

• A. Long after the event only
• B. At the time of the transaction or so soon afterwards that the matter was fresh in memory
• C. By any stranger
• D. Never

Q43. [Evidence/BSA] The distinction between ‘may presume’ and ‘shall presume’ under the BSA is that in ‘shall presume’:

• A. The court has discretion to presume
• B. The court must regard the fact as proved unless disproved
• C. The presumption is conclusive
• D. No presumption arises

Q44. [Evidence/BSA] Oral evidence, under the BSA, must in all cases be:

• A. Hearsay
• B. Direct
• C. Documentary
• D. Presumed

Q45. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, a Judge or Magistrate cannot, except upon the special order of a superior court, be compelled to answer questions as to:

• A. His own name
• B. His conduct in court as such Judge or things coming to his knowledge in that capacity
• C. The weather
• D. His salary

Q46. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, when the contents of a document are to be proved, the general rule requires:

• A. Only oral account
• B. Primary evidence, save in cases where secondary evidence is admissible
• C. Hearsay
• D. A confession

Q47. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, opinion evidence is generally excluded, but the opinion of persons specially skilled in a foreign law, science, art, handwriting or fingerprints is relevant as:

• A. Hearsay
• B. Expert opinion
• C. Conclusive proof
• D. Character evidence

Q48. [Constitution] The territory of India, under Article 1, comprises the States, the Union territories and:

• A. Only the States
• B. Such other territories as may be acquired
• C. Foreign embassies
• D. The high seas

Q49. [Constitution] In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the ‘procedure established by law’ under Article 21 must be:

• A. Any procedure
• B. Fair, just and reasonable, not arbitrary
• C. Purely formal
• D. Retrospective

Q50. [Constitution] The freedom to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business is guaranteed by:

• A. Article 19(1)(a)
• B. Article 19(1)(g)
• C. Article 21
• D. Article 25

Q51. [Constitution] Under Article 22, a person arrested and detained in custody must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within:

• A. 48 hours
• B. 24 hours excluding journey time
• C. 72 hours
• D. One week

Q52. [Constitution] Article 32, which guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights, was described by Dr. Ambedkar as:

• A. A dead letter
• B. The heart and soul of the Constitution
• C. A Directive Principle
• D. A saving clause

Q53. [Constitution] The power of the High Court to issue writs under Article 226 is, in territorial and substantive scope, ______ the power of the Supreme Court under Article 32:

• A. Narrower than
• B. Wider than, as it extends to any legal right besides Fundamental Rights
• C. Identical to
• D. Subordinate to and dependent upon

Q54. [Constitution] In I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu, the Court held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 are open to challenge if they violate the:

• A. Union List
• B. Basic structure or Fundamental Rights
• C. Money Bill rules
• D. Anti-defection law

Q55. [Constitution] Appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in any State shall be made by the Governor in consultation with the:

• A. Chief Minister
• B. High Court exercising jurisdiction in that State
• C. President
• D. Public Service Commission

Q56. [Constitution] The doctrine applied to sustain a law which, though in substance within the legislature’s competence, incidentally trenches on a forbidden field, is:

• A. Colourable legislation
• B. Pith and substance
• C. Eclipse
• D. Severability

Q57. [Constitution] Public Interest Litigation in India was primarily developed to relax the traditional rule of:

• A. Res judicata
• B. Locus standi
• C. Estoppel
• D. Double jeopardy

Q58. [Contract] Under Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when a person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from doing anything with a view to obtaining that other’s assent, he is said to make:

• A. A promise
• B. A proposal
• C. An agreement
• D. A consideration

Q59. [Contract] The rule that a stranger to a contract cannot sue upon it is known as the doctrine of:

• A. Privity of consideration
• B. Privity of contract
• C. Consideration must be adequate
• D. Nudum pactum

Q60. [Contract] If a person incapable of contracting is supplied with necessaries suited to his condition in life, the supplier is entitled to be reimbursed from:

• A. The incapable person personally
• B. The property of such incapable person
• C. A guarantor
• D. No one, as it is void

Q61. [Contract] Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is:

• A. Always fraud
• B. Not fraud unless there is a duty to speak or silence is equivalent to speech
• C. Coercion
• D. Undue influence

Q62. [Contract] An agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void
• C. Voidable
• D. Enforceable if reasonable

Q63. [Contract] The obligation of a person to restore a benefit received under a mistake or coercion is dealt with under Section 72, which is an instance of a:

• A. Contingent contract
• B. Quasi-contract
• C. Wagering agreement
• D. Contract of guarantee

Q64. [Contract] A contract becomes void when, after it is made, an act it contemplates becomes impossible or unlawful by reason of an event the promisor could not prevent. This is the doctrine of:

• A. Frustration under Section 56
• B. Novation
• C. Rescission
• D. Waiver

Q65. [Contract] Quantum meruit means:

• A. As much as is deserved
• B. As much as is promised
• C. The whole contract price
• D. A penalty

Q66. [Contract] Where the creditor makes a composition with, or agrees to give time to, the principal debtor without the surety’s consent, the surety is:

• A. Discharged
• B. Bound further
• C. Liable for double
• D. Unaffected

Q67. [Contract] A person who has, without the owner’s authority but with the consent of the mercantile agent in possession, pledged goods, may confer a valid pledge under the exception in:

• A. Section 178
• B. Section 172
• C. Section 148
• D. Section 124

Q68. [Property] Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, ‘transfer of property’ means an act by which a living person conveys property to:

• A. One or more other living persons, or to himself and others
• B. Only a company
• C. Only a deceased person’s estate
• D. The government exclusively

Q69. [Property] The rule against perpetuity under Section 14 prohibits creation of an interest that takes effect after the lifetime of living persons plus:

• A. The minority of a person living at the date of transfer
• B. A fixed period of twenty-one years
• C. A period of one hundred years
• D. The lifetime of the transferor only

Q70. [Property] Where a person erroneously represents that he is authorised to transfer property and later acquires an interest in it, the transferee may, at his option, require that the transfer operate on that interest. This is:

• A. Doctrine of lis pendens
• B. Feeding the grant by estoppel (Section 43)
• C. Part performance
• D. Doctrine of election

Q71. [Property] Sale of tangible immovable property of a value less than one hundred rupees may be made by:

• A. A registered instrument or delivery of the property
• B. Only a registered instrument
• C. Only an unregistered writing
• D. Oral gift

Q72. [Property] A mortgage effected by delivery of documents of title to immovable property, in specified towns, is called:

• A. English mortgage
• B. Equitable mortgage (mortgage by deposit of title deeds)
• C. Simple mortgage
• D. Anomalous mortgage

Q73. [Property] Where several properties of different owners are mortgaged to secure one debt, they are, as between themselves, liable to contribute rateably. This is the doctrine of:

• A. Marshalling
• B. Contribution under Section 82
• C. Foreclosure
• D. Subrogation

Q74. [Property] In the absence of a contract to the contrary, a lease for any other purpose is deemed to be:

• A. A lease from year to year
• B. A lease from month to month, terminable by fifteen days’ notice
• C. A lease at will
• D. A perpetual lease

Q75. [Property] For a gift of immovable property to be valid under Section 123, it must be effected by:

• A. Mere delivery of possession
• B. A registered instrument signed by the donor and attested by at least two witnesses
• C. An oral declaration
• D. An unregistered writing

Q76. [Property] The doctrine of ‘feeding the grant by estoppel’ in Section 43 does not apply where:

• A. The transferee acts in good faith
• B. The transferee had notice of the transferor’s want of title at the time of transfer
• C. Consideration was paid
• D. The transferor later acquired title

Q77. [Torts] The maxim ‘damnum sine injuria’ refers to:

• A. Injury without damage
• B. Damage without infringement of a legal right
• C. Damage with legal injury
• D. No damage and no injury

Q78. [Torts] A key difference between absolute liability and strict liability is that absolute liability:

• A. Requires proof of negligence
• B. Admits no exceptions and is not limited to escape
• C. Applies only to natural users
• D. Needs a contractual nexus

Q79. [Torts] The essential distinction between public and private nuisance is that public nuisance:

• A. Is a tort actionable only by one person
• B. Affects the public or a class of persons
• C. Requires no interference
• D. Is always lawful

Q80. [Torts] False imprisonment consists of:

• A. Total restraint of liberty without lawful justification
• B. A partial obstruction of movement
• C. A defamatory statement
• D. A breach of contract

Q81. [Commercial] A promissory note under the Negotiable Instruments Act must contain:

• A. An unconditional promise to pay a certain sum
• B. A conditional order to a bank
• C. A mere acknowledgment of debt
• D. A promise to deliver goods

Q82. [Commercial] Under Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 an arbitration agreement must be:

• A. Oral only
• B. In writing
• C. Registered compulsorily
• D. Attested by a magistrate

Q83. [Commercial] Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 the moratorium during CIRP is declared under:

• A. Section 7
• B. Section 12
• C. Section 14
• D. Section 31

Q84. [Commercial] The principle of a company as a separate legal person distinct from its members was established in:

• A. Foss v Harbottle
• B. Salomon v Salomon & Co
• C. Ashbury Railway v Riche
• D. Royal British Bank v Turquand

Q85. [Commercial] The maxim ‘nemo dat quod non habet’ under the Sale of Goods Act means:

• A. A buyer always gets good title
• B. One cannot transfer a better title than one has
• C. Caveat emptor is abolished
• D. Property passes on payment only

Q86. [Rajasthan Local Law] Rent-control and eviction of tenants in urban Rajasthan is governed by the:

• A. Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955
• B. Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001
• C. Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956
• D. Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act

Q87. [Rajasthan Local Law] The primary superior class of tenant with heritable and transferable rights under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 is the:

• A. Gair khatedar tenant
• B. Khatedar tenant
• C. Tenant of khudkasht
• D. Sub-tenant

Q88. [Rajasthan Local Law] Adjudication of eviction and rent under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 is by the:

• A. Civil Judge
• B. Rent Tribunal / Rent Authority
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Collector

Q89. [Rajasthan Local Law] Conversion of agricultural land for non-agricultural purposes in Rajasthan (90A/90B) is provided under the:

• A. Rajasthan Tenancy Act
• B. Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956
• C. Rent Control Act
• D. Panchayati Raj Act

Q90. [Rajasthan Local Law] The highest revenue court in Rajasthan hearing second appeals/revisions in tenancy matters is the:

• A. Board of Revenue, Ajmer
• B. Rajasthan High Court
• C. Divisional Commissioner
• D. Collector

Q91. [Rajasthan Local Law] A ‘gair khatedar’ tenant differs from a khatedar tenant chiefly in that his interest is:

• A. Wholly non-transferable/limited
• B. Absolute ownership
• C. Government-held
• D. Ceilings-exempt

Q92. [Rajasthan Local Law] Ceiling on agricultural holdings in Rajasthan is imposed by the:

• A. Rajasthan Rent Control Act
• B. Rajasthan Imposition of Ceiling on Agricultural Holdings Act, 1973
• C. Rajasthan Tenancy Act only
• D. Land Revenue Act only

Q93. [Rajasthan Local Law] The bench of the Rajasthan High Court besides the principal seat at Jodhpur is at:

• A. Ajmer
• B. Jaipur
• C. Kota
• D. Udaipur

Q94. [Rajasthan Local Law] The record of rights (annual register of holdings) maintained in Rajasthan is the:

• A. Girdawari only
• B. Jamabandi
• C. Charge register
• D. Decree register

Q95. [Rajasthan Local Law] Allotment of Government land to landless agriculturists in Rajasthan is governed by rules under the:

• A. Rent Control Act
• B. Rajasthan Land Revenue Act / Rajasthan Land Revenue (Allotment) Rules
• C. Tenancy Act only
• D. Panchayat Act

Q96. [Rajasthan Local Law] Bar of jurisdiction of civil courts in matters expressly covered by the Rajasthan Tenancy Act channels such suits to:

• A. High Court
• B. Revenue courts
• C. Consumer forum
• D. Rent Tribunal

Q97. [Rajasthan Local Law] ‘Khudkasht’ land under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act denotes land:

• A. Held by a sub-tenant
• B. Cultivated personally by the landholder
• C. Common village land
• D. Government waste

Q98. [Rajasthan Local Law] The three-tier Panchayati Raj system in Rajasthan (the first state to adopt it, 1959) now operates under the:

• A. Rajasthan Tenancy Act
• B. Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994
• C. Rajasthan Land Revenue Act
• D. Rent Control Act

Q99. [Rajasthan Local Law] Acquisition of khatedari rights by a tenant generally arises after continuous lawful cultivation as prescribed, subject to exclusions such as land held from a:

• A. Private landlord after prescribed period
• B. Religious/charitable institution or by way of specified exemptions
• C. Any source without exception
• D. The State only

Q100. [Rajasthan Local Law] Administrative and disciplinary control over Rajasthan’s subordinate judiciary vests, under Article 235, in the:

• A. State Government
• B. Rajasthan High Court
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Collector