Daily Practice Sheet — 20 Questions
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Judiciary Prelims Daily Practice — 2 July 2026 · 20 questions · BNS, BNSS, BSA, CPC, Constitution, Contract, Limitation & Bihar exam GK. Attempt first, then check the answer key below.
Q1. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for murder is provided in:
- A. Section 101
- B. Section 103
- C. Section 105
- D. Section 302
Q2. Culpable homicide is defined under which provision of the BNS, 2023?
- A. Section 99
- B. Section 100
- C. Section 101
- D. Section 103
Q3. Under the BNS, 2023, ‘theft’ is defined and punished under:
- A. Section 301
- B. Section 303
- C. Section 305
- D. Section 309
Q4. ‘Organised crime’ has been made a distinct substantive offence for the first time under which section of the BNS, 2023?
- A. Section 109
- B. Section 111
- C. Section 113
- D. Section 48
Q5. Under the BNS, 2023, the right of private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing death under:
- A. Section 35
- B. Section 36
- C. Section 38
- D. Section 44
Q6. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 contains how many sections in total?
- A. 484
- B. 511
- C. 531
- D. 170
Q7. The provision for anticipatory bail (‘direction for grant of bail to person apprehending arrest’) appears in the BNSS, 2023 under:
- A. Section 480
- B. Section 482
- C. Section 483
- D. Section 187
Q8. Information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence (FIR), including electronic FIR, is dealt with under which section of the BNSS, 2023?
- A. Section 154
- B. Section 173
- C. Section 175
- D. Section 193
Q9. Under Section 187 of the BNSS, 2023, police custody may be authorised by a Magistrate:
- A. Only within the first 15 days after arrest, as one continuous period
- B. In whole or in parts, at any time during the initial 40 or 60 days of the detention period
- C. Only after the chargesheet has been filed
- D. For a maximum of 7 days in all offences
Q10. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 contains how many sections?
- A. 167
- B. 170
- C. 173
- D. 180
Q11. Admissibility of electronic or digital records is governed by which provision of the BSA, 2023?
- A. Section 61 read with Section 63
- B. Section 65A read with 65B
- C. Section 57
- D. Section 39
Q12. Under the BSA, 2023, the general rule that ‘whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist’ is contained in:
- A. Section 101
- B. Section 104
- C. Section 107
- D. Section 108
Q13. The doctrine of res judicata is embodied in which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
- A. Section 10
- B. Section 11
- C. Section 13
- D. Order II Rule 2
Q14. Temporary injunctions during the pendency of a suit are granted under:
- A. Order XXXVIII Rules 1-2 CPC
- B. Order XXXIX Rules 1-2 CPC
- C. Order XL Rule 1 CPC
- D. Section 9 CPC
Q15. A plaint shall be rejected where it does not disclose a cause of action, under:
- A. Order VI Rule 16 CPC
- B. Order VII Rule 10 CPC
- C. Order VII Rule 11 CPC
- D. Order VIII Rule 10 CPC
Q16. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the ‘procedure established by law’ under Article 21 must be fair, just and reasonable — effectively importing due process?
- A. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
- B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
- C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
- D. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
Q17. The power of High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights AND ‘for any other purpose’ flows from:
- A. Article 32
- B. Article 136
- C. Article 226
- D. Article 227
Q18. Under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement made without consideration is valid if it is:
- A. Made in writing and registered, out of natural love and affection between parties standing in near relation
- B. Made orally between close relatives
- C. Supported by past illegal consideration
- D. Made with a minor
Q19. Under the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit for possession of immovable property based on title must be filed within:
- A. 3 years
- B. 12 years
- C. 30 years
- D. 6 years
Q20. The Bihar Civil Judge (Junior Division) competitive examination — such as the 33rd Bihar Judiciary Examination — is conducted by:
- A. The Patna High Court directly
- B. The Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC)
- C. The Union Public Service Commission
- D. The State Law Department
Answer Key
- B — Section 103(1) BNS prescribes death or imprisonment for life (plus fine) for murder. Murder itself is defined in Section 101 BNS. Section 302 was the corresponding punishment provision under the repealed IPC — a favourite examiner trap.
- B — Section 100 BNS defines culpable homicide (corresponding to Section 299 IPC). Section 101 BNS defines murder (old 300 IPC).
- B — Section 303(1) BNS defines theft; Section 303(2) provides the punishment (up to 3 years, or fine, or both — with a minimum-fine scheme for repeat petty theft). Old provisions: Sections 378/379 IPC.
- B — Section 111 BNS criminalises organised crime (continuing unlawful activity by crime syndicates). Section 113 covers terrorist acts; Section 112 covers petty organised crime. These had no general IPC equivalent — earlier handled by special state laws like MCOCA.
- C — Section 38 BNS (corresponding to Section 100 IPC) lists the situations — e.g., assault causing reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt, rape, kidnapping — where private defence of the body extends to causing death.
- C — BNSS 2023 has 531 sections (CrPC 1973 had 484). 511 was the total sections of the IPC; 170 is the total of the BSA — both classic confusion options.
- B — Section 482 BNSS corresponds to Section 438 CrPC (anticipatory bail). Note the trap: Section 482 CrPC was the High Court’s inherent powers, which is now Section 528 BNSS.
- B — Section 173 BNSS corresponds to Section 154 CrPC and now expressly recognises information given by electronic communication (e-FIR) and Zero FIR irrespective of jurisdiction.
- B — Section 187 BNSS (old 167 CrPC) permits up to 15 days of police custody which may now be taken in whole or in parts at any time during the initial 40 days (offences punishable up to 10 years) or 60 days (offences punishable with death/life/10+ years) — a significant departure from the CBI v. Anupam Kulkarni regime.
- B — BSA 2023 has 170 sections; the repealed Indian Evidence Act, 1872 had 167. The BSA is organised into 12 chapters.
- A — Sections 61-63 BSA govern electronic records: Section 61 gives electronic records the same legal effect as paper documents, and Section 63 (old 65B Evidence Act) prescribes the certificate-based admissibility route.
- B — Section 104 BSA states the classic burden-of-proof rule (old Section 101 Evidence Act — the number itself is the trap).
- B — Section 11 CPC bars re-litigation of a matter directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties decided by a competent court. Section 10 is res sub judice; Order II Rule 2 bars splitting of claims.
- B — Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 CPC empower the court to grant temporary injunctions (property in danger of being wasted/alienated; restraining breach of contract or injury). Order XXXVIII is arrest/attachment before judgment; Order XL is appointment of receivers.
- C — Order VII Rule 11 CPC lists grounds for rejection of plaint — no cause of action, undervaluation not corrected, insufficient stamping not cured, suit barred by law, etc. Order VII Rule 10 is return of plaint for want of jurisdiction.
- B — Maneka Gandhi (1978) overruled the narrow A.K. Gopalan view and held that procedure under Article 21 must be right, just and fair, reading Articles 14, 19 and 21 together.
- C — Article 226 gives High Courts a wider writ jurisdiction than Article 32 (Supreme Court), since it extends beyond fundamental rights to ‘any other purpose’. Article 227 is supervisory jurisdiction, not writ jurisdiction.
- A — Section 25(1) ICA: an agreement without consideration is valid if expressed in writing, registered, and made on account of natural love and affection between parties in near relation. Other exceptions: compensation for past voluntary services (25(2)) and promise to pay a time-barred debt in writing (25(3)).
- B — Article 65, Schedule to the Limitation Act: 12 years from when the possession of the defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff.
- B — Unlike several states where the High Court conducts the judicial services examination, in Bihar the BPSC conducts the Civil Judge (JD) exam (prelims + mains), with the Patna High Court associated at the interview stage.