Daily Practice Sheet — 25 Questions
Take this quiz online with timer, mark-for-review, instant scorecard, percentile, and per-question explanations. CLAT scoring scheme: +1 / -0.25.
Bihar APO 2026 — FREE Diagnostic Mock (25 questions). Prosecution / criminal-law focus: BNS, BNSS, BSA, Constitution, and special acts (NI Act, NDPS, POCSO, PC Act). Attempt online with timer and instant scorecard; section-referenced explanations appear after you submit.
Q1. [BNS] Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of murder is punishable under which section?
- A. Section 101
- B. Section 103
- C. Section 105
- D. Section 302
Q2. [BNS] ‘Snatching’ has been introduced as a distinct offence for the first time under which section of the BNS, 2023?
- A. Section 302
- B. Section 304
- C. Section 303
- D. Section 309
Q3. [BNS] Under the BNS, the punishment for organised crime (Section 111) where it results in death is:
- A. 7 years
- B. Life imprisonment only
- C. Death or imprisonment for life
- D. 10 years
Q4. [BNS] Section 106(1) BNS gives a registered medical practitioner causing death by a negligent medical act a maximum punishment of:
- A. 2 years
- B. 5 years
- C. 7 years
- D. 10 years
Q5. [BNSS] Zero FIR and e-FIR (information on a cognizable offence irrespective of jurisdiction, by electronic means) is provided under:
- A. Section 154
- B. Section 173
- C. Section 176
- D. Section 175
Q6. [BNSS] Under Section 187 BNSS, for an offence punishable with death/life/10+ years, the total detention period before default bail accrues is:
- A. 60 days
- B. 90 days
- C. 40 days
- D. 15 days
Q7. [BNSS] BNSS makes a forensic expert’s visit to the crime scene mandatory for offences punishable with imprisonment of:
- A. 3 years or more
- B. 5 years or more
- C. 7 years or more
- D. 10 years or more
Q8. [BSA] Admissibility of electronic records under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is chiefly governed by:
- A. Sections 61 to 63
- B. Sections 65A and 65B
- C. Section 45
- D. Section 27
Q9. [BSA] The burden of proof lies on the person who would fail if no evidence were given — under the BSA this is:
- A. Section 101
- B. Section 104
- C. Section 105
- D. Section 106
Q10. [Constitution] The High Court’s power to issue writs ‘for enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose’ is in:
- A. Article 32
- B. Article 226
- C. Article 227
- D. Article 136
Q11. [Constitution] Under Article 233, an advocate is eligible for direct appointment as District Judge with practice of not less than:
- A. 5 years
- B. 7 years
- C. 10 years
- D. 3 years
Q12. [Constitution] The ‘basic structure’ doctrine was propounded in:
- A. Golaknath v. Punjab
- B. Kesavananda Bharati v. Kerala
- C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
- D. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Q13. [Criminal Law] A dying declaration is admissible because of the maxim:
- A. Nemo debet bis vexari
- B. Nemo moriturus praesumitur mentire
- C. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea
- D. Res ipsa loquitur
Q14. [Criminal Law] Common intention (joint liability) is embodied in the BNS under:
- A. Section 3(5)
- B. Section 61
- C. Section 190
- D. Section 111
Q15. [Special Acts] A complaint under Section 138 NI Act (cheque dishonour) must be filed within:
- A. 15 days
- B. One month (30 days)
- C. 45 days
- D. 90 days
Q16. [Special Acts] The NDPS Act, 1985 graduates punishment by which quantity thresholds?
- A. Personal and commercial
- B. Small and commercial (with intermediate)
- C. Minor and major
- D. Simple and aggravated
Q17. [Special Acts] Under the POCSO Act, 2012, a ‘child’ is a person below the age of:
- A. 16 years
- B. 18 years
- C. 21 years
- D. 12 years
Q18. [Special Acts] Prior approval before enquiry/investigation against a public servant is required under which section of the PC Act, 1988?
- A. Section 17A
- B. Section 19
- C. Section 13
- D. Section 7
Q19. [Legal GK] The new criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA) came into force on:
- A. 15 August 2023
- B. 26 January 2024
- C. 1 July 2024
- D. 1 April 2024
Q20. [Legal GK] Administrative control over the district and subordinate judiciary vests in the High Court under:
- A. Article 233
- B. Article 234
- C. Article 235
- D. Article 236
Q21. [Legal GK] The Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer (APO) exam is conducted by:
- A. Patna High Court
- B. Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC)
- C. Bihar Staff Selection Commission
- D. Directorate of Prosecution
Q22. [Criminal Law] ‘A’ instigates ‘B’, a child under seven, to poison ‘C’; B does so and C dies. ‘A’ is guilty of:
- A. Abetment only
- B. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
- C. Murder
- D. No offence
Q23. [Criminal Law] Private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing death in situations listed in which section of the BNS?
- A. Section 34
- B. Section 35
- C. Section 38
- D. Section 44
Q24. [BNSS] Trial in absentia of a proclaimed absconder is now expressly permitted under the BNSS in:
- A. Section 355
- B. Section 356
- C. Section 84
- D. Section 105
Q25. [Constitution] Anticipatory-bail-type protection of personal liberty ultimately draws its constitutional strength from:
- A. Article 14
- B. Article 19
- C. Article 21
- D. Article 22
Answer Key
- B — Section 103(1) BNS prescribes punishment for murder (death or life imprisonment + fine). Murder is defined in Section 101. Section 302 was the punishment section under the repealed IPC.
- B — Section 304 BNS defines and punishes snatching. Section 303 is theft; Section 309 is robbery. Snatching had no direct IPC equivalent.
- C — Section 111 BNS: where organised crime results in death, punishment is death or life imprisonment and fine of not less than Rs 10 lakh.
- A — The proviso to Section 106(1) caps a registered medical practitioner’s liability for a negligent medical act causing death at 2 years plus fine, versus the general 5-year term.
- B — Section 173 BNSS (successor to Section 154 CrPC) allows electronic registration (e-FIR) and Zero FIR regardless of territorial jurisdiction.
- B — Section 187 BNSS retains the 90-day (grave) / 60-day (other) limits for filing the report; what changed is that 15 days’ police custody may be sought in parts within the first 40/60 days.
- C — Section 176(3) BNSS mandates forensic collection of evidence for offences punishable with 7 years or more.
- A — Sections 61-63 BSA govern electronic records; Section 63 (successor to Section 65B Evidence Act) sets certificate-based admissibility.
- C — Section 105 BSA (successor to Section 102 Evidence Act). Section 104 states the general ‘he who asserts must prove’ rule.
- B — Article 226 gives High Courts a writ jurisdiction wider than Article 32, extending to ‘any other purpose’.
- B — Article 233(2): 7 years’ practice as advocate/pleader + High Court recommendation.
- B — Kesavananda Bharati (1973) held Parliament cannot alter the Constitution’s basic structure.
- B — ‘Nemo moriturus praesumitur mentire’ — a dying person is presumed not to lie.
- A — Section 3(5) BNS (successor to Section 34 IPC). Section 61 is criminal conspiracy.
- B — Section 142(b) NI Act: within one month of the cause of action arising (after the 15-day notice period).
- B — Small quantity, intermediate, and commercial quantity — the last attracts the harshest punishment and Section 37 bail rigours.
- B — Section 2(1)(d) POCSO: below eighteen years.
- A — Section 17A (2018 amendment) requires prior approval before enquiry/investigation into a public servant’s official-function offences.
- C — They came into force on 1 July 2024, replacing the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act.
- C — Article 235 vests control (posting, promotion, leave of officers below District Judge) in the High Court.
- B — BPSC conducts the Bihar APO exam; APOs serve under the Directorate of Prosecution, Home Department.
- C — Abetting a doli incapax child to do an act that would be an offence if done by a competent person makes the abettor liable as principal — here, murder.
- C — Section 38 BNS (successor to Section 100 IPC) lists apprehension of death/grievous hurt, rape, kidnapping, acid attack, etc.
- B — Section 356 BNSS introduces trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial — a significant new provision with no CrPC equivalent.
- C — Article 21 (protection of life and personal liberty), as expansively read in Maneka Gandhi, underpins bail jurisprudence and the requirement of a fair, just and reasonable procedure.