UP HJS (District Judge) — Preliminary / Screening Mock (100 Questions)

Q1. [CPC] Under Section 11 CPC (res judicata), the doctrine of ‘constructive res judicata’ is embodied specifically in which of the following?

• A. Explanation IV to Section 11
• B. Explanation VI to Section 11
• C. Section 11 main provision
• D. Explanation VIII to Section 11

Q2. [CPC] A foreign judgment is conclusive under Section 13 CPC except in enumerated cases. Which is NOT one of the statutory exceptions?

• A. Where it was not pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction
• B. Where it was obtained by fraud
• C. Where the defendant was ordinarily resident abroad
• D. Where it sustains a claim founded on a breach of law in force in India

Q3. [CPC] An application for amendment of pleadings after commencement of trial under Order 6 Rule 17 proviso is allowed only if the court concludes that:

• A. The amendment is merely formal
• B. Despite due diligence the party could not have raised the matter before trial began
• C. The opposite party consents in writing
• D. The suit valuation is unaffected

Q4. [CPC] The bar under Order 2 Rule 2 CPC operates to prevent a plaintiff from:

• A. Joining multiple defendants
• B. Omitting a portion of the claim and later suing for it
• C. Amending the plaint
• D. Withdrawing the suit with liberty

Q5. [CPC] A second appeal under Section 100 CPC lies to the High Court only on:

• A. A question of fact
• B. A mixed question of fact and law
• C. A substantial question of law
• D. Any error apparent on record

Q6. [CPC] The inherent powers of the court are preserved by which provision, and they cannot be invoked where a specific remedy exists?

• A. Section 148
• B. Section 151
• C. Section 152
• D. Section 153

Q7. [CPC] For a temporary injunction under Order 39 Rules 1 and 2 CPC, the settled trinity the applicant must satisfy is:

• A. Prima facie case, balance of convenience, irreparable injury
• B. Res judicata, cause of action, limitation
• C. Locus standi, jurisdiction, valuation
• D. Notice, security, undertaking

Q8. [CPC] The power to transfer a suit or appeal from one High Court to another vests in the Supreme Court under which provision?

• A. Section 22
• B. Section 23
• C. Section 24
• D. Section 25

Q9. [CPC] In Salem Advocate Bar Association v. Union of India, the Supreme Court chiefly upheld and gave directions on the CPC amendments concerning:

• A. Abolition of second appeals
• B. Mandatory pre-litigation mediation and Section 89 ADR reference
• C. Removal of Order 7 Rule 11
• D. Extension of limitation for appeals

Q10. [CPC] Under Order 8 Rule 1 CPC, the written statement must ordinarily be filed within thirty days, extendable, but the outer limit generally recognised for non-commercial suits is:

• A. 45 days
• B. 60 days
• C. 90 days
• D. 120 days

Q11. [CPC] A precept under Section 46 CPC is an order requesting another court to:

• A. Execute a decree fully
• B. Attach property to prevent alienation pending transfer of decree
• C. Try an issue
• D. Record additional evidence

Q12. [CPC] Revisional jurisdiction of the High Court under Section 115 CPC can be exercised where the subordinate court has:

• A. Merely decided a question wrongly on merits
• B. Exercised jurisdiction not vested, or failed to exercise vested jurisdiction, or acted with material irregularity
• C. Delivered any interlocutory order
• D. Admitted inadmissible evidence

Q13. [BNS 2023] Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, the punishment for murder is provided in Section 103, whereas the general definition of culpable homicide is contained in:

• A. Section 100
• B. Section 101
• C. Section 105
• D. Section 106

Q14. [BNS 2023] BNS 2023 introduces a distinct offence of ‘organised crime’ as a codified provision at:

• A. Section 109
• B. Section 110
• C. Section 111
• D. Section 112

Q15. [BNS 2023] The offence commonly described as mob lynching, i.e. murder or grievous hurt by a group of five or more on grounds such as race, caste, community or language, is punishable under which section of the BNS?

• A. Section 101
• B. Section 103
• C. Section 105
• D. Section 117

Q16. [BNS 2023] Under the BNS 2023, the types of punishments enumerated (death, life imprisonment, imprisonment, forfeiture, fine) and the newly added community service are set out in:

• A. Section 4
• B. Section 6
• C. Section 8
• D. Section 10

Q17. [BNS 2023] Culpable homicide is NOT murder under the BNS where it falls within a special exception; which of the following is a recognised exception mirroring the former IPC scheme?

• A. Act done by a public servant exceeding lawful authority in good faith for advancement of public justice
• B. Act causing death by mere negligence
• C. Act done under a bona fide civil dispute
• D. Act causing death of a trespasser without provocation

Q18. [BNS 2023] The right of private defence of the body extends, under the BNS, to voluntarily causing death of the assailant only in enumerated situations such as:

• A. Any assault whatsoever
• B. Reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt, or specified assaults like rape or kidnapping
• C. Trespass on agricultural land
• D. Verbal threats alone

Q19. [BNS 2023] Under the BNS 2023, a criminal conspiracy is constituted when two or more persons agree to do an illegal act, and for offences punishable with death or long imprisonment, mere agreement suffices without:

• A. Any overt act
• B. Presence of all conspirators at one place
• C. A written agreement
• D. Actual commission of the offence

Q20. [BNS 2023] BNS 2023 distinguishes theft, extortion, robbery and dacoity. Robbery, in essence, is:

• A. Dishonest taking without any force or fear
• B. Theft or extortion aggravated by force, or fear of instant hurt, death or wrongful restraint
• C. Breach of trust by a bailee
• D. Cheating by personation

Q21. [BNS 2023] The distinction between hurt and grievous hurt under the BNS turns on enumerated categories; which of the following is classed as grievous hurt?

• A. Any bodily pain lasting a few hours
• B. Permanent privation of the sight of either eye
• C. A minor bruise
• D. Temporary discomfort

Q22. [BNS 2023] Criminal breach of trust under the BNS essentially requires:

• A. Taking property by force
• B. Entrustment of property and dishonest misappropriation or conversion in violation of that trust
• C. Deception inducing delivery of property
• D. Wrongful restraint of a person

Q23. [BNS 2023] Cheating under the BNS is distinguished from criminal breach of trust chiefly because cheating requires:

• A. Prior entrustment of property
• B. Fraudulent or dishonest inducement from the outset causing delivery of property or an act
• C. A fiduciary relationship
• D. Custody of movable property

Q24. [BNS 2023] Abetment under the BNS is constituted by any of three modes; which is NOT a recognised mode of abetment?

• A. Instigation
• B. Engaging in conspiracy for the act
• C. Intentional aiding by act or illegal omission
• D. Mere silent presence without more

Q25. [BNSS 2023] Under the BNSS 2023, the provision for grant of anticipatory bail (direction for release on arrest apprehension) is contained in which section, replacing Section 438 of the CrPC?

• A. Section 438
• B. Section 480
• C. Section 482
• D. Section 484

Q26. [BNSS 2023] Under the BNSS 2023, what is the maximum period of default (statutory) bail entitlement where the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment of not less than ten years, if the investigation is not completed?

• A. 60 days
• B. 90 days
• C. 120 days
• D. 180 days

Q27. [BNSS 2023] The provision for maintenance of wives, children and parents, corresponding to Section 125 CrPC, is now found in which section of the BNSS 2023?

• A. Section 125
• B. Section 144
• C. Section 146
• D. Section 164

Q28. [BNSS 2023] A distinctive new safeguard introduced by Section 223 BNSS in cognizance of an offence upon a complaint is that the Magistrate shall not take cognizance without

• A. obtaining sanction from the State Government
• B. giving the accused an opportunity of being heard
• C. recording reasons in a separate order
• D. referring the matter to a Sessions Judge

Q29. [BNSS 2023] Which of the following is a genuinely NEW feature introduced by the BNSS 2023 that had no direct counterpart in the CrPC 1973?

• A. Trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender
• B. Anticipatory bail
• C. Recording of confessions by a Magistrate
• D. Committal of cases to the Court of Session

Q30. [BNSS 2023] Under Section 173 BNSS, the concept of a Zero FIR is now statutorily recognised, meaning an FIR

• A. can be registered at any police station irrespective of jurisdiction
• B. need not be registered for cognizable offences
• C. must be numbered zero until charge-sheet
• D. can only be filed electronically

Q31. [BNSS 2023] Under the BNSS 2023, within what maximum period must a judgment ordinarily be pronounced after conclusion of arguments in a trial?

• A. 15 days, extendable to 30 days
• B. 30 days, extendable to 45 days
• C. 45 days, extendable to 60 days
• D. 7 days, extendable to 14 days

Q32. [BNSS 2023] Under the BNSS 2023, an application for plea bargaining by the accused must be filed within what period from the date of framing of charge?

• A. Fifteen days
• B. Thirty days
• C. Forty-five days
• D. Sixty days

Q33. [Evidence/BSA] Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023, an electronic or digital record is now treated as

• A. only secondary evidence
• B. documentary evidence admissible as primary evidence
• C. oral evidence requiring corroboration
• D. inadmissible unless notarised

Q34. [Evidence/BSA] The certificate requirement for admissibility of electronic records, corresponding to Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, is now contained in which section of the BSA 2023?

• A. Section 61
• B. Section 62
• C. Section 63
• D. Section 65

Q35. [Evidence/BSA] In Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal, the Supreme Court held that the certificate for electronic evidence is

• A. always optional where the original device is produced
• B. a mandatory pre-condition for admissibility of secondary electronic records
• C. required only in criminal trials
• D. required only for CCTV footage

Q36. [Evidence/BSA] The principle that a dying declaration is admissible was expounded in Pakala Narayana Swami v. Emperor and refined in Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra; the statement is relevant because it relates to

• A. the accused’s motive alone
• B. the cause of death or circumstances of the transaction resulting in death
• C. the character of the deceased
• D. hearsay generally

Q37. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA 2023, facts forming part of the same transaction (the doctrine of res gestae) are

• A. irrelevant as hearsay
• B. relevant though not otherwise in issue
• C. relevant only if made on oath
• D. admissible only against the maker

Q38. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA 2023, an accomplice is a competent witness against an accused, and a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice; this is

• A. a conclusive presumption
• B. subject to the rule of prudence requiring corroboration
• C. an absolute bar to conviction
• D. applicable only to approvers pardoned by the court

Q39. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA 2023, in civil cases the general rule regarding evidence of character is that

• A. character evidence is always relevant
• B. the fact that the character of any person is such as to render probable or improbable any conduct imputed to him is irrelevant
• C. only good character is relevant
• D. only bad character is relevant

Q40. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA 2023, no particular number of witnesses is required for proof of any fact; this rule means that

• A. it applies only to civil cases
• B. it applies only where documents exist
• C. a fact may be proved by a single credible witness
• D. at least two witnesses are required in criminal cases

Q41. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA 2023, a leading question is one

• A. asked only in re-examination
• B. suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes to receive
• C. asked to a hostile witness only
• D. that must always be disallowed

Q42. [Evidence/BSA] Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023, the burden of proving that a person is alive who has not been heard of for seven years by those who would naturally have heard of him lies on:

• A. The person who affirms it
• B. The person who denies it
• C. The State in every case
• D. No one, as it is presumed

Q43. [Constitution] Under Article 233(2) of the Constitution, a person not already in the service of the Union or State is eligible for appointment as a district judge only if he has been an advocate or pleader for how many years?

• A. Not less than five years
• B. Not less than seven years
• C. Not less than ten years
• D. Not less than three years

Q44. [Constitution] For the direct recruitment of an advocate as a district judge under Article 233(2), whose recommendation is a mandatory condition precedent?

• A. The State Public Service Commission
• B. The High Court
• C. The Governor’s Council of Ministers
• D. The Chief Justice of India

Q45. [Constitution] In Rameshwar Dayal v. State of Punjab and later decisions, the expression ‘has been for not less than seven years an advocate’ in Article 233(2) is construed to mean that the seven years’ standing is computed up to which point?

• A. The date of joining as district judge
• B. The date of application or eligibility as fixed, not requiring practice to continue till appointment
• C. Ten years before appointment
• D. Only continuous practice on the appointment date

Q46. [Constitution] Article 235 vests the control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto (including posting, promotion and grant of leave to persons belonging to the judicial service) in which authority?

• A. The Governor of the State
• B. The High Court
• C. The State Government
• D. The Chief Justice of India

Q47. [Constitution] In State of West Bengal v. Nripendra Nath Bagchi, the Supreme Court held that ‘control’ over subordinate judiciary under Article 235 vested in the High Court includes which of the following?

• A. Only the power of posting and transfer
• B. Disciplinary jurisdiction and control over the conduct and discipline of judicial officers
• C. Only recommendation of names for appointment
• D. Power to legislate on court fees

Q48. [Constitution] Under Article 236, the expression ‘district judge’ is defined to include which of the following?

• A. Only the principal civil judge of original jurisdiction
• B. Judge of a city civil court, additional district judge, sessions judge, chief judge of a small cause court and chief presidency magistrate among others
• C. Only a sessions judge
• D. Only munsifs and civil judges (junior division)

Q49. [Constitution] Under Article 236(b), the expression ‘judicial service’ means a service consisting exclusively of persons intended to fill which posts?

• A. The post of district judge and other civil judicial posts inferior to the post of district judge
• B. All administrative posts in the State secretariat
• C. Posts in the executive magistracy only
• D. Posts of public prosecutors

Q50. [Constitution] The basic structure doctrine, limiting Parliament’s amending power under Article 368, was first authoritatively propounded in which decision?

• A. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
• B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
• C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
• D. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain

Q51. [Constitution] In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the ‘procedure established by law’ under Article 21 must be which of the following?

• A. Merely enacted by a competent legislature
• B. Right, just, fair and reasonable, and not arbitrary, fanciful or oppressive
• C. Consistent only with Article 19
• D. Immune from judicial review

Q52. [Constitution] Which of the following correctly distinguishes the writ jurisdiction under Article 32 from that under Article 226?

• A. Article 32 is itself a fundamental right, while Article 226 is a constitutional remedy of the High Court exercisable for fundamental and other legal rights
• B. Article 32 is discretionary while Article 226 is mandatory
• C. Article 226 can be suspended but Article 32 can never be suspended
• D. Article 32 extends to legal rights beyond fundamental rights while Article 226 is confined to fundamental rights

Q53. [Constitution] Under Article 226(2), a High Court may exercise jurisdiction to issue writs in relation to a cause of action arising within its territories even though the seat of the authority is outside those territories; this is an illustration of which principle?

• A. Doctrine of pith and substance
• B. The territorial nexus of part of the cause of action arising within jurisdiction
• C. Doctrine of colourable legislation
• D. Doctrine of eclipse

Q54. [Constitution] Under Article 141 of the Constitution, the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on which courts?

• A. Only the High Courts
• B. All courts within the territory of India
• C. Only courts subordinate to the High Courts
• D. Only the Supreme Court itself

Q55. [Contract] Under Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, consideration may move from the promisee or ‘any other person’; this recognition of consideration furnished by a stranger to the contract is best illustrated by which decision?

• A. Chinnaya v. Ramayya
• B. Balfour v. Balfour
• C. Currie v. Misa
• D. Tweddle v. Atkinson

Q56. [Contract] An agreement made without consideration is valid under Section 25 of the Contract Act in which of the following cases?

• A. A promise to pay a time-barred debt made orally
• B. A written and registered promise made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in near relation
• C. A promise to do an impossible act
• D. An agreement in restraint of marriage of a major

Q57. [Contract] In Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, the Privy Council held that an agreement by a minor is which of the following?

• A. Voidable at the option of the minor
• B. Void ab initio
• C. Enforceable if beneficial to the minor’s estate
• D. Merely unenforceable but capable of ratification on majority

Q58. [Contract] In Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt, the plaintiff’s claim to a reward for tracing the missing boy failed principally because of which reason?

• A. The reward offer was illegal
• B. He had no knowledge of the offer when he performed the act, so there was no acceptance
• C. The consideration was past
• D. The offer had been revoked

Q59. [Contract] Under Section 30 of the Contract Act, agreements by way of wager are which of the following?

• A. Void, and no suit lies to recover anything won on a wager
• B. Voidable at the option of the loser
• C. Valid if the stakes are small
• D. Illegal and criminally punishable

Q60. [Contract] The rule in Hadley v. Baxendale, embodied in Section 73 of the Contract Act, permits recovery of damages that are which of the following?

• A. Only nominal in every case
• B. Such as arose naturally in the usual course of things or such as the parties knew when contracting to be likely to result from the breach
• C. All losses however remote
• D. Only losses expressly agreed as liquidated damages

Q61. [Contract] Under Section 74 of the Contract Act, where a sum is named in a contract as payable on breach, the party complaining of breach is entitled to which of the following?

• A. The full named sum in every case as a penalty
• B. Reasonable compensation not exceeding the sum named, whether or not actual damage is proved
• C. Nothing unless actual loss is strictly proved
• D. Double the named sum as exemplary damages

Q62. [Contract] In Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur, the Supreme Court interpreted the doctrine of frustration under Section 56 to rest on which basis?

• A. A term implied by the court into the contract
• B. The positive rule enacted in Section 56 that a contract to do an act becomes void when the act becomes impossible or unlawful
• C. The English theory of the foundation of the contract only
• D. The parties’ express provision for frustration

Q63. [Property] Under Section 6(a) of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, the chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate (spes successionis) is:

• A. Transferable only with the consent of the present owner
• B. Not transferable, being a mere possibility
• C. Transferable if the transfer is registered
• D. Transferable only after the death of the propositus

Q64. [Property] The doctrine of election under Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act is founded on the principle that:

• A. A person cannot approbate and reprobate the same instrument
• B. A transfer without consideration is always void
• C. Registration cures every defect in title
• D. Possession follows title in all cases

Q65. [Property] Under Section 41 of the Transfer of Property Act, a transfer by an ostensible owner is protected where the real owner consented and the transferee, acting in good faith, took:

• A. Without any enquiry whatsoever
• B. After taking reasonable care to ascertain the transferor’s power
• C. Only with a registered power of attorney
• D. After a decree of the civil court

Q66. [Property] Section 43 (feeding the grant by estoppel) of the Transfer of Property Act applies where a person:

• A. Transfers property he presently owns absolutely
• B. Fraudulently or erroneously represents authority to transfer property he later acquires
• C. Gifts onerous property to a minor
• D. Redeems a mortgage after the due date

Q67. [Property] To claim protection under Section 53A (part performance) of the Transfer of Property Act, the essential requirement regarding the contract is that it must be:

• A. Oral but corroborated by witnesses
• B. In writing, signed, from which the terms can be ascertained with reasonable certainty
• C. Registered and stamped in every case
• D. Accompanied by full payment of consideration

Q68. [Property] Under Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, a sale of tangible immovable property of value less than one hundred rupees may be made by:

• A. Registered instrument only
• B. Registered instrument or delivery of property
• C. Oral agreement without any delivery
• D. A mere agreement to sell

Q69. [Property] In a mortgage by conditional sale under Section 58(c) of the Transfer of Property Act, the condition of sale on default must be:

• A. Embodied in a separate unregistered writing
• B. Embodied in the same document which effects or purports to effect the sale
• C. Proved only by oral evidence
• D. Registered after the default occurs

Q70. [Property] The maxim ‘once a mortgage always a mortgage’, reflected in Section 60 of the Transfer of Property Act, prohibits any:

• A. Sale of the mortgaged property by the mortgagee
• B. Clog on the equity of redemption
• C. Registration of the mortgage deed
• D. Assignment of the mortgage debt

Q71. [Property] Under Section 111 of the Transfer of Property Act, a lease of immovable property determines by ‘merger’ when:

• A. The lessor and lessee become the same person in one right
• B. The lessee assigns the lease to a third party
• C. The rent falls into arrears for three months
• D. The lessor serves a notice to quit

Q72. [Torts] The rule of absolute liability, as distinct from strict liability under Rylands v Fletcher, was evolved by the Supreme Court of India in:

• A. Rylands v Fletcher
• B. M.C. Mehta v Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak)
• C. Vaughan v Menlove
• D. Bhim Singh v State of Jammu and Kashmir

Q73. [Torts] Under the rule in the Wagon Mound (No.1), the test for remoteness of damage in negligence is:

• A. Directness of consequences
• B. Reasonable foreseeability of the kind of damage
• C. But-for causation alone
• D. Proximity of relationship

Q74. [Torts] The maxim injuria sine damno (legal injury without actual loss) is best illustrated by:

• A. Gloucester Grammar School case
• B. Ashby v White
• C. Mayor of Bradford v Pickles
• D. Mogul Steamship Co. v McGregor

Q75. [Torts] For the defence of volenti non fit injuria to succeed, the defendant must establish that the plaintiff:

• A. Was merely aware of the risk
• B. Freely and voluntarily, with full knowledge, consented to accept the risk
• C. Suffered no actual damage
• D. Was contributorily negligent

Q76. [Commercial] Section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act raises a presumption that the holder received the cheque:

• A. As a gift
• B. For the discharge of a debt or other liability
• C. Without consideration
• D. By way of security only

Q77. [Commercial] Under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, an arbitral award may be set aside on the ground that it is:

• A. Merely erroneous on a question of fact
• B. In conflict with the public policy of India
• C. Unfavourable to the government
• D. Passed after the statutory period

Q78. [Commercial] The principle of kompetenz-kompetenz, enabling an arbitral tribunal to rule on its own jurisdiction, is embodied in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996 in:

• A. Section 9
• B. Section 11
• C. Section 16
• D. Section 34

Q79. [Commercial] The distinction between the ‘seat’ and ‘venue’ of arbitration, determining supervisory jurisdiction, was clarified by the Constitution Bench in:

• A. Bharat Aluminium Co. v Kaiser Aluminium (BALCO)
• B. Bhatia International v Bulk Trading
• C. ONGC v Saw Pipes
• D. Renusagar Power Co. v General Electric

Q80. [Commercial] Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016, an application to initiate CIRP by an operational creditor is filed under:

• A. Section 7
• B. Section 9
• C. Section 10
• D. Section 12

Q81. [Commercial] A petition for relief against oppression and mismanagement before the National Company Law Tribunal is maintainable under the Companies Act 2013 in:

• A. Sections 241 and 242
• B. Section 397 alone
• C. Section 210
• D. Section 271

Q82. [Family Law] Under Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955, a petition for divorce by mutual consent requires the parties to have been living separately for a period of:

• A. Six months
• B. One year or more
• C. Two years
• D. Three years

Q83. [Family Law] The Supreme Court in Vineeta Sharma v Rakesh Sharma held that a daughter’s right as a coparcener under the amended Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act:

• A. Depends on the father being alive on 9 September 2005
• B. Is by birth and does not depend on the father being alive on the commencement date
• C. Applies only to unmarried daughters
• D. Requires a registered partition to be reopened

Q84. [Family Law] The instantaneous practice of talaq-e-biddat (triple talaq) was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in:

• A. Mohd. Ahmed Khan v Shah Bano Begum
• B. Shayara Bano v Union of India
• C. Danial Latifi v Union of India
• D. Sarla Mudgal v Union of India

Q85. [Family Law] Among the essentials of a valid Hiba (gift) under Muslim law, the requirement distinct from a transfer under the Transfer of Property Act is:

• A. Registration of a written deed in every case
• B. Immediate delivery of possession of the subject of the gift
• C. Payment of consideration by the donee
• D. Attestation by two adult male witnesses

Q86. [UP Local Law] Under the Uttar Pradesh Revenue Code 2006, a bhumidhar with transferable rights differs from a bhumidhar with non-transferable rights principally in that the former:

• A. Pays no land revenue at all
• B. Holds heritable and transferable rights in his holding
• C. Is a mere lessee for a fixed term
• D. Cannot bequeath his holding by will

Q87. [UP Local Law] Under the UP Revenue Code 2006, which authority is the apex court in the hierarchy of revenue courts?

• A. The Board of Revenue
• B. The Sub-Divisional Officer
• C. The Tahsildar
• D. The Collector

Q88. [UP Local Law] Under the UP Revenue Code 2006, an asami is best described as a tenure holder who:

• A. Holds permanent, heritable and transferable rights
• B. Holds land on a subordinate, largely non-transferable tenancy of limited duration
• C. Is the intermediary between the State and the cultivator
• D. Owns the sub-soil mineral rights

Q89. [UP Local Law] Under the UP Revenue Code 2006, the officer primarily responsible for maintaining village land records at the field level is the:

• A. Lekhpal
• B. District Judge
• C. Registrar of the High Court
• D. Divisional Commissioner

Q90. [UP Local Law] Under the now-repealed UP Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act 1950, the class of tenure holder possessing the most secure, heritable and transferable rights was the:

• A. Adhivasi
• B. Asami
• C. Sirdar
• D. Bhumidhar

Q91. [UP Local Law] Under the UP Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act 1950, a sirdar could acquire bhumidhari rights principally by:

• A. Depositing an amount equal to a multiple of the land revenue
• B. Simply cultivating the land for one season
• C. Obtaining a decree of the civil court
• D. Marrying into a zamindar family

Q92. [UP Local Law] Under the UP Urban Buildings (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act 1972, an application by a landlord for release of a building on the ground of his bona fide need is filed under:

• A. Section 21
• B. Section 3
• C. Section 30
• D. Section 43

Q93. [UP Local Law] Under the UP Urban Buildings Act 1972, which of the following is a recognised ground of eviction of a tenant under Section 20?

• A. Sub-letting the whole or part of the building without consent
• B. The tenant belonging to a different district
• C. The landlord acquiring a second property
• D. The building being newly whitewashed

Q94. [UP Local Law] Under the UP Urban Buildings Act 1972, the power to allot a vacant building to a prospective tenant is exercised under Section 16 by the:

• A. District Magistrate or officer authorised by him
• B. Sub-Registrar
• C. High Court
• D. Gram Pradhan

Q95. [UP Local Law] Under the UP Urban Buildings Act 1972, the Act’s provisions generally do not apply to a building for a period of how many years from the date on which its construction is completed?

• A. Ten years
• B. Two years
• C. One year
• D. Twenty-five years

Q96. [UP Local Law] The principal object of the UP Consolidation of Holdings Act 1953 is to:

• A. Consolidate scattered and fragmented agricultural holdings into compact blocks (chaks)
• B. Abolish all agricultural tenancies
• C. Fix ceiling on urban rents
• D. Create new municipalities

Q97. [UP Local Law] Under the UP Consolidation of Holdings Act 1953, Section 49 provides that during consolidation proceedings the jurisdiction of the civil court in respect of matters covered by the Act is:

• A. Barred
• B. Unaffected and concurrent
• C. Enlarged
• D. Transferred to the High Court alone

Q98. [UP Local Law] Under the UP Panchayat Raj Act 1947, the elected head of a Gram Panchayat is designated as the:

• A. Pradhan
• B. Sarpanch
• C. Collector
• D. Zila Adhyaksh

Q99. [UP Local Law] The Allahabad High Court has its principal seat at Prayagraj and a permanent Bench at Lucknow, the latter exercising jurisdiction over the districts of the erstwhile:

• A. Oudh (Awadh) region
• B. Bundelkhand region
• C. Rohilkhand region alone
• D. Purvanchal region alone

Q100. [UP Local Law] The UP Janhit Guarantee Adhiniyam 2011 primarily guarantees to citizens the:

• A. Time-bound delivery of notified public services with penalty for default
• B. Right to free legal aid in criminal trials
• C. Abolition of court fees in revenue matters
• D. Reservation in public employment