Chhattisgarh HJS (District Judge) — Prelims Pattern Mock 5 (100 Questions)

Q1. [CPC] Substituted service of summons under Order 5 Rule 20 CPC may be ordered where the court is satisfied that the defendant is keeping out of the way for the purpose of avoiding service, and one mode prescribed is:

• A. Publication in a newspaper circulating in the locality where the defendant last resided
• B. Service through the plaintiff’s advocate only
• C. Oral proclamation at the court premises alone
• D. Sending a telegram to the defendant

Q2. [CPC] When an ex parte decree is passed and the defendant applies to set it aside under Order 9 Rule 13 CPC, the court may set aside the decree if it is satisfied that:

• A. The summons was duly served but the defendant was busy
• B. The defendant was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called on for hearing
• C. The decree is erroneous on merits
• D. A new advocate has been engaged

Q3. [CPC] Under Order 12 Rule 6 CPC, the court may at any stage of a suit, on the application of any party or of its own motion, pass a judgment on:

• A. The pleadings alone without evidence in every case
• B. Admissions of fact made in the pleadings or otherwise
• C. A mere failure to file a written statement
• D. The plaintiff’s affidavit of evidence

Q4. [CPC] Where a decree is passed for partition of property assessed to the payment of revenue to Government, Order 20 Rule 18(1) CPC provides that the decree shall:

• A. Effect the partition itself by metes and bounds
• B. Declare the rights of the several parties and direct partition to be made by the Collector
• C. Appoint a Commissioner in every case
• D. Be a money decree for the value of the shares

Q5. [CPC] Under Order 21 Rule 84 CPC, on every sale of immovable property in execution, the person declared to be the purchaser shall pay immediately after such declaration:

• A. The full purchase-money
• B. A deposit of twenty-five per cent on the amount of his purchase-money
• C. Ten per cent of the reserve price
• D. Nothing until confirmation of sale

Q6. [CPC] Order 34 CPC deals with suits relating to mortgages of immovable property. In a suit for foreclosure, the court in the first instance passes:

• A. A final decree of foreclosure directly
• B. A preliminary decree ordering accounts and fixing a period for payment
• C. A decree for sale in every case
• D. A money decree for the mortgage debt

Q7. [CPC] Explanation VI to Section 11 CPC provides that where persons litigate bona fide in respect of a public right or of a private right claimed in common for themselves and others, all persons interested in such right shall, for the purposes of res judicata, be deemed to:

• A. Be strangers to the decree
• B. Claim under the persons so litigating
• C. Have no interest in the litigation
• D. Require fresh notice under Order 1 Rule 8

Q8. [CPC] Under Section 148 CPC, where any period is fixed or granted by the court for the doing of any act prescribed or allowed by the Code, the court may, in its discretion, enlarge such period even though the period originally fixed has expired, up to a maximum total of:

• A. Fifteen days
• B. Thirty days in total
• C. Sixty days
• D. Ninety days

Q9. [CPC] The proviso to Section 16 CPC permits a suit to obtain relief respecting, or compensation for wrong to, immovable property held by the defendant to be instituted in the court within whose jurisdiction the defendant voluntarily resides or carries on business, where:

• A. The relief sought can be entirely obtained through the defendant’s personal obedience
• B. The property is worth more than the court’s pecuniary limit
• C. The plaintiff prefers that forum
• D. The defendant is a Government servant

Q10. [CPC] Under Order 5 Rule 9 CPC (as amended), the court may direct that service of summons be effected by:

• A. Only registered post acknowledgment due
• B. Delivering or transmitting a copy by such courier services, fax, electronic mail or other means as the High Court by rules provides, in addition to the ordinary process
• C. Personal service by the plaintiff only
• D. Publication in the Official Gazette in every case

Q11. [CPC] Under Order 21 Rule 66 CPC, where any property is ordered to be sold in execution, the court shall cause a proclamation of the intended sale to be made, and such proclamation shall specify (as fairly and accurately as possible):

• A. Only the reserve price
• B. The property to be sold, any encumbrance, the amount for recovery of which the sale is ordered, and every other thing which the court considers material for a purchaser to know
• C. Only the decree-holder’s name
• D. Only the date of sale

Q12. [Limitation] Under Section 3(1) of the Limitation Act, 1963, subject to the provisions of Sections 4 to 24, every suit instituted, appeal preferred and application made after the prescribed period shall be dismissed:

• A. Only if limitation is pleaded as a defence
• B. Although limitation has not been set up as a defence
• C. Only after issues are framed
• D. With liberty to file afresh

Q13. [Limitation] Under Section 21(1) of the Limitation Act, 1963, where after the institution of a suit a new plaintiff or defendant is substituted or added, the suit shall, as regards him, be deemed to have been instituted when:

• A. The original suit was instituted
• B. He was so made a party
• C. The cause of action arose
• D. Issues were framed

Q14. [Limitation] Under Article 136 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, an application for the execution of any decree (other than a decree granting a mandatory injunction) or order of any civil court has a limitation of:

• A. Three years
• B. Six years
• C. Twelve years
• D. Thirty years

Q15. [Specific Relief] After the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, under Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the specific performance of a contract:

• A. Remains a discretionary relief to be granted in exceptional cases
• B. Shall be enforced by the court subject to the provisions of sub-section (2) of section 11, section 14 and section 16
• C. Is available only where damages cannot be quantified
• D. Has been entirely abolished

Q16. [Specific Relief] Under Section 16(c) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (as amended in 2018), specific performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person who fails to prove that he has:

• A. Fully performed every term of the contract himself
• B. Performed or has always been ready and willing to perform the essential terms of the contract which are to be performed by him
• C. Paid the entire consideration in advance
• D. Given notice of the suit

Q17. [Specific Relief] Section 20C of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (inserted in 2018) provides that a suit filed under the provisions of the Act shall be disposed of by the court within a period of ____ from the date of service of summons, extendable by not more than six months for reasons to be recorded:

• A. Six months
• B. Twelve months
• C. Eighteen months
• D. Twenty-four months

Q18. [Specific Relief] Under Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, where, through fraud or a mutual mistake of the parties, a contract or other instrument in writing does not express their real intention, either party may institute a suit to have the instrument:

• A. Cancelled
• B. Rectified
• C. Rescinded
• D. Declared void

Q19. [Specific Relief] Under Section 42 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, notwithstanding Section 41(e), where a contract comprises an affirmative agreement to do a certain act coupled with a negative agreement not to do a certain act, the circumstance that the court is unable to compel specific performance of the affirmative agreement:

• A. Bars any injunction on the negative agreement
• B. Shall not preclude it from granting an injunction to perform the negative agreement, if the plaintiff has not failed to perform the contract so far as binding on him
• C. Requires the plaintiff to seek damages only
• D. Renders the whole contract void

Q20. [BNS 2023] Under the general clauses of BNS, an ‘omission’ referred to by a word denoting an act includes

• A. Only intentional omissions
• B. A series of omissions as well as a single omission
• C. Only omissions causing death
• D. No omissions

Q21. [BNS 2023] The grave and sudden provocation exception to murder does not apply where the provocation is

• A. Given by a child
• B. Sought or voluntarily provoked by the offender as an excuse for killing
• C. Given at night
• D. Given verbally

Q22. [BNS 2023] An attempt to murder under BNS which causes hurt to the victim renders the offender liable to

• A. Only the standard attempt punishment
• B. Enhanced punishment because hurt is caused
• C. No punishment as death did not result
• D. Punishment for grievous hurt only

Q23. [BNS 2023] Under BNS, voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid, even if no hurt is caused, is

• A. No offence
• B. A punishable offence in itself
• C. Only a civil wrong
• D. An attempt to murder

Q24. [BNS 2023] ‘Criminal force’ under BNS requires the use of force to a person with intent to cause, or knowing it likely to cause, injury, fear or annoyance, whereas ‘assault’ requires

• A. Actual contact in every case
• B. A gesture or preparation causing apprehension of criminal force
• C. A weapon
• D. Grievous hurt

Q25. [BNS 2023] An ‘unlawful assembly’ under BNS is an assembly of five or more persons having a common object which includes

• A. Peaceful protest
• B. Resisting the execution of law or process by criminal force
• C. Religious worship
• D. A public meeting

Q26. [BNS 2023] Theft in a dwelling house, or theft of an idol, or theft from a means of transportation used by the public, is under BNS

• A. Simple theft
• B. An aggravated form of theft
• C. Extortion
• D. Robbery

Q27. [BNS 2023] ‘Criminal breach of trust’ under BNS requires that the accused was in any manner

• A. A stranger to the property
• B. Entrusted with property or dominion over it
• C. A joint owner only
• D. A finder of goods

Q28. [BNS 2023] ‘Forgery’ under BNS is making a false document or false electronic record with intent to cause damage or injury, to support any claim, or to commit

• A. Any tort
• B. Fraud or that fraud may be committed
• C. A breach of contract
• D. A public nuisance

Q29. [BNS 2023] ‘Criminal intimidation’ by an anonymous communication, or by taking precaution to conceal the name or abode of the person threatening, is under BNS

• A. Not an offence
• B. An aggravated form of criminal intimidation
• C. Defamation
• D. Extortion

Q30. [BNS 2023] BNS section 152 creates an offence of endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, which penalises acts that

• A. Criticise government policy peacefully
• B. Excite secession, armed rebellion or subversive activities, or encourage separatist feelings
• C. Report news
• D. File a petition

Q31. [BNS 2023] Gang rape of a woman under eighteen years of age under BNS is punishable with imprisonment for life which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of natural life, or with

• A. Death
• B. Simple fine
• C. Community service
• D. Three years

Q32. [BNSS 2023] BNSS permits a police officer to arrest without a warrant a person who has committed a cognizable offence, or against whom a reasonable complaint or credible information exists, and additionally a person who

• A. Is merely suspected without cause
• B. Is a proclaimed offender
• C. Owes a civil debt
• D. Has criticised the police

Q33. [BNSS 2023] BNSS mandates that search and seizure, including preparation of the list of seized items and signing by witnesses, be recorded through

• A. A written panchnama only
• B. Audio-video electronic means, preferably a mobile phone
• C. A photograph only
• D. No recording

Q34. [BNSS 2023] BNSS introduces a relaxation for first-time offenders, providing that a person who has never been convicted of any offence and has undergone detention up to one-third of the maximum sentence during trial shall be released on bond, whereas a repeat undertrial is released after

• A. One-half of the maximum period
• B. One-fourth
• C. The full period
• D. No relaxation

Q35. [BNSS 2023] Under BNSS, where a dispute likely to cause a breach of the peace exists concerning immovable property, the Executive Magistrate may

• A. Decide title finally
• B. Pass a preliminary order and, on a case of emergency, attach the subject of dispute
• C. Order arrest
• D. Award damages

Q36. [BNSS 2023] Under BNSS, a court may alter or add to any charge at any time before

• A. The first witness is examined
• B. Judgment is pronounced
• C. Cognizance is taken
• D. The charge is framed

Q37. [BNSS 2023] A judgment under BNSS in a case of conviction shall specify the offence, the section of law under which the accused is convicted, and

• A. Only the sentence
• B. The punishment to which he is sentenced
• C. The complainant’s name only
• D. The trial expenses

Q38. [BNSS 2023] An appeal from a conviction by a Court of Session under BNSS lies to the

• A. Court of the Sessions Judge
• B. High Court
• C. Supreme Court directly
• D. Chief Judicial Magistrate

Q39. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, facts necessary to explain or introduce a fact in issue or relevant fact, or which establish the identity of anything whose identity is relevant, are

• A. Relevant
• B. Not admissible
• C. Relevant only if admitted
• D. Presumed irrelevant

Q40. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, when a fact is discovered in consequence of information received from an accused in custody, so much of the information as distinctly relates to the fact discovered

• A. Is wholly inadmissible
• B. May be proved
• C. Is presumed false
• D. Requires two witnesses

Q41. [Evidence/BSA] Where multiple dying declarations are inconsistent, the court, on settled principle, should

• A. Accept the first one automatically
• B. Scrutinise them and may rely on the one found trustworthy in the circumstances
• C. Reject all of them
• D. Accept the last one automatically

Q42. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, the contents of documents may be proved by

• A. Oral evidence alone
• B. Presumption only
• C. Only certified copies
• D. Primary or secondary evidence

Q43. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, an electronic or digital record is admissible in evidence as a document and treated

• A. As oral evidence
• B. As inadmissible hearsay
• C. On par with a paper document subject to the prescribed conditions
• D. Only after decryption by court

Q44. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, the fact that a person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage, or within a specified period after its dissolution the mother remaining unmarried, is

• A. Irrelevant
• B. Conclusive proof of legitimacy unless non-access is shown
• C. Prima facie proof of illegitimacy
• D. Provable only by DNA

Q45. [Evidence/BSA] There can be no estoppel against a statute, which means

• A. Estoppel overrides all statutes
• B. A party cannot be estopped from asserting a right conferred or a bar imposed by statute
• C. Statutes always create estoppel
• D. Estoppel applies only to statutes

Q46. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, professional communications between an advocate and client are protected, but this protection does not extend to communications made

• A. Before litigation
• B. Regarding settlement
• C. About fees
• D. In furtherance of any illegal purpose

Q47. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, when a witness is declared hostile and cross-examined by the party calling them, their evidence

• A. Must be wholly rejected
• B. Is inadmissible
• C. Becomes conclusive
• D. Is not effaced altogether and the credible part may be relied upon

Q48. [Constitution] On the question whether fundamental rights can be waived, the Supreme Court has held that

• A. All fundamental rights may be waived
• B. Fundamental rights cannot be waived by the person entitled to them
• C. Only Article 19 rights can be waived
• D. Waiver is permitted with court’s leave

Q49. [Constitution] The freedom to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business under Article 19(1)(g) can be restricted on the ground of

• A. Public order alone
• B. The interests of the general public, including prescribing professional qualifications and State monopoly
• C. Sovereignty of India
• D. Contempt of court

Q50. [Constitution] Under Article 22, in cases of preventive detention, an Advisory Board must ordinarily consider the detention where a person is detained beyond

• A. Three months
• B. One month
• C. Six months
• D. One year

Q51. [Constitution] Article 28(1) provides that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution

• A. Wholly maintained out of State funds
• B. Aided by the State
• C. Run by minorities
• D. Receiving any grant

Q52. [Constitution] Where a Directive Principle conflicts with a Fundamental Right, the settled approach is one of

• A. Harmonious construction between the two
• B. Automatic supremacy of the Directive Principle
• C. Automatic invalidity of the Directive Principle
• D. Referring to Parliament

Q53. [Constitution] Under Article 233(2), a person not already in service of the Union or State is eligible to be appointed a district judge only if they have been an advocate or pleader for not less than

• A. Five years
• B. Ten years
• C. Seven years
• D. Three years

Q54. [Constitution] Articles 323A and 323B of the Constitution deal with the establishment of

• A. Finance Commissions
• B. Election Commissions
• C. Administrative and other tribunals
• D. Public Service Commissions

Q55. [Constitution] The clauses of the 42nd Amendment purporting to place constitutional amendments beyond judicial review and to give unlimited amending power were struck down in

• A. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
• B. Waman Rao
• C. Coelho
• D. Indira Nehru Gandhi

Q56. [Constitution] Under Article 254, where a State law on a Concurrent List subject is repugnant to a Union law, the

• A. State law prevails
• B. Union law prevails and the State law is void to the extent of repugnancy
• C. Both are void
• D. Court chooses which prevails

Q57. [Constitution] Under Article 237, the Governor may by public notification direct that the provisions relating to district and subordinate judges apply to any class of magistrates, with such exceptions and modifications as may be specified, subject to

• A. The provisions of Chapter VI of Part VI
• B. No conditions
• C. Presidential sanction
• D. Parliamentary approval

Q58. [Contract] A promise made to a party to a family arrangement, though that party gave no consideration personally, is enforceable because such a beneficiary falls within a recognised exception to:

• A. The rule against restraint of trade
• B. The doctrine of privity of consideration
• C. The rule requiring written form
• D. The doctrine of frustration

Q59. [Contract] A contract entered into during minority, being void ab initio, cannot be validated by ratification after attaining majority because:

• A. Ratification requires the minor’s consent
• B. There was no valid contract capable of ratification and no fresh consideration
• C. The Contract Act expressly permits ratification
• D. Only guardians may ratify

Q60. [Contract] Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to contract is not fraud under Section 17 unless:

• A. The contract is of high value
• B. There is a duty to speak, or silence is equivalent to speech
• C. The other party is a minor
• D. The contract is oral

Q61. [Contract] Under Section 30 a wagering agreement is void; a collateral transaction to a wager, such as a loan to enable payment of a lost wager, is:

• A. Also void in every State
• B. Generally not void and may be enforceable except where a State declares wagers illegal
• C. Void only if oral
• D. Enforceable only by the winner

Q62. [Contract] Under Section 35, a contingent contract to do something within a fixed time if a specified event does not happen within that time may be enforced:

• A. At any time thereafter
• B. If the event does not happen within the fixed time, or its happening becomes impossible before the time expires
• C. Only after the time expires irrespective of the event
• D. Never

Q63. [Contract] Under Section 71, a person who finds goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody is subject to the same responsibility as:

• A. An agent
• B. A bailee
• C. A surety
• D. A trustee

Q64. [Contract] Under Sections 59 to 61, where a debtor owing several debts makes a payment without express appropriation and no circumstances imply appropriation, the creditor may:

• A. Return the money
• B. Apply it at his discretion to any lawful debt including a time-barred one
• C. Apply it only to the earliest debt by law
• D. Refuse the payment

Q65. [Contract] Under Section 56, a contract to do an act which after the contract is made becomes impossible or unlawful by reason of some event the promisor could not prevent becomes:

• A. Voidable
• B. Void when the act becomes impossible or unlawful
• C. Enforceable on best efforts
• D. Merely suspended

Q66. [Contract] Under Section 125, an indemnity-holder acting within the scope of his authority is entitled to recover from the indemnifier the damages, costs and:

• A. Only the principal sum
• B. All sums paid under a compromise if not contrary to indemnifier’s orders and prudent
• C. Punitive damages
• D. Nothing beyond damages

Q67. [Contract] The maxim delegatus non potest delegare, reflected in Section 190, means an agent cannot ordinarily employ another to perform acts he has undertaken to perform personally, except where:

• A. The principal is abroad
• B. The ordinary custom of trade or nature of agency permits it
• C. The agent is busy
• D. The sub-agent is cheaper

Q68. [Property] Under Section 8, unless a different intention is expressed, a transfer of property passes to the transferee all the interest which the transferor is then capable of passing together with:

• A. Only the corpus
• B. The legal incidents of that property
• C. No easements
• D. Only future rents

Q69. [Property] Under Section 21, an interest is contingent where it is to take effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event, or if a specified uncertain event does not happen; such interest becomes vested:

• A. Immediately
• B. When the event happens, or when its happening becomes impossible in the negative case
• C. Never
• D. On registration

Q70. [Property] Under Section 17, a direction to accumulate income beyond the permitted period is void as to the excess, the permitted period being the life of the transferor or:

• A. Ten years from the transfer
• B. A period of eighteen years from the date of transfer
• C. Twenty-one years always
• D. The minority of any person

Q71. [Property] Under Section 44, where one of two co-owners transfers his share, the transferee acquires the transferor’s right to joint possession and to enforce a partition, subject to conditions and liabilities affecting:

• A. Only movable property
• B. The share transferred as at the date of transfer
• C. The whole undivided estate
• D. Nothing

Q72. [Property] The doctrine of part performance under Section 53A operates as a shield and not a sword, meaning the transferee may:

• A. Sue to recover the property
• B. Defend his possession against the transferor but not affirmatively claim title
• C. Claim damages only
• D. Compel registration

Q73. [Property] Under Section 60, the mortgagor’s right to redeem on payment of the mortgage-money is protected by the maxim ‘once a mortgage always a mortgage’, so that any stipulation which fetters this right is void as:

• A. A restraint on trade
• B. A clog on the equity of redemption
• C. An unlawful object
• D. A perpetuity

Q74. [Property] Under Section 92, a person who redeems a mortgage, having an interest in the property, is subrogated to the rights of the mortgagee whom he has redeemed; such subrogation by a stranger paying off requires:

• A. No formality
• B. An agreement in writing and registered
• C. Court decree
• D. Mere payment

Q75. [Property] Under Section 112, a forfeiture incurred by breach of an express condition is waived by acceptance of rent which has become due since the forfeiture, or by distress, or by any other act showing an intention to treat the lease as:

• A. Determined
• B. Subsisting
• C. Void
• D. Renewed for life

Q76. [Property] Under Section 130, the transfer of an actionable claim must be effected only by the execution of an instrument in writing signed by the transferor, whereupon all the rights and remedies of the transferor vest in the transferee:

• A. Only after notice to the debtor
• B. Whether such notice is given or not
• C. On registration only
• D. On the debtor’s consent

Q77. [Torts] In N. Nagendra Rao v State of A.P., the Supreme Court

• A. expanded sovereign immunity widely
• B. narrowed sovereign immunity, holding welfare-State functions non-sovereign
• C. overruled Vidhyawati
• D. abolished vicarious liability of the State

Q78. [Torts] The standard applied to test professional negligence of a medical practitioner in India, adopting the English yardstick, is the

• A. reasonable-patient test
• B. Bolam test as adopted in Jacob Mathew v State of Punjab
• C. strict-liability test
• D. res-ipsa test only

Q79. [Torts] An action for malicious prosecution requires the plaintiff to prove, among other elements, that the prosecution ended

• A. in his conviction
• B. in his favour
• C. without any trial
• D. by compromise

Q80. [Torts] A new remedy introduced by the Consumer Protection Act 2019 fixing liability on manufacturers and sellers for defective products is

• A. class action only
• B. product liability
• C. unfair trade practice
• D. restrictive trade practice

Q81. [Commercial] Cognizance of an offence under Section 138 is taken on a complaint made within one month under

• A. Section 141
• B. Section 142
• C. Section 143
• D. Section 147

Q82. [Commercial] Interim measures ordered by the arbitral tribunal itself, as distinct from the court, are provided under

• A. Section 9
• B. Section 17
• C. Section 27
• D. Section 34

Q83. [Commercial] An operational creditor commences the corporate insolvency resolution process under

• A. Section 7
• B. Section 9
• C. Section 10
• D. Section 14

Q84. [Commercial] The principle that a company is a legal person distinct from its members was laid down in

• A. Foss v Harbottle
• B. Salomon v Salomon & Co Ltd
• C. Ashbury Railway v Riche
• D. Royal British Bank v Turquand

Q85. [Commercial] The principle that each partner is an agent of the firm for the purposes of its business reflects the doctrine of

• A. mutual agency
• B. constructive notice
• C. ultra vires
• D. indoor management

Q86. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Chhattisgarh notified its own set of rules operationalising Gram-Sabha powers in Scheduled Areas, namely the:

• A. CG Rent Control Rules
• B. CG Panchayat Provisions (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Rules (PESA Rules), 2022
• C. CG Excise Rules
• D. CG Land Revenue Rules

Q87. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The apex revenue authority in Chhattisgarh sits at:

• A. Raipur
• B. Bilaspur (Board of Revenue)
• C. Durg
• D. Jagdalpur

Q88. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Restriction on transfer of the land of a member of an aboriginal tribe in CG is contained in the provision of the CG Land Revenue Code corresponding to:

• A. Section 100
• B. Sections 165/170B
• C. Section 250
• D. Section 12 of the Rent Act

Q89. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Rent and eviction of tenants of urban accommodation in Chhattisgarh are decided by the authority under the:

• A. CG Land Revenue Code
• B. Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011
• C. CG Excise Act
• D. CG Panchayat Act

Q90. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] A revenue officer of the rank subordinate to the Tehsildar in Chhattisgarh is the:

• A. Collector
• B. Naib-Tehsildar
• C. Commissioner
• D. Board Member

Q91. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] A large part of the Bastar and Surguja regions of CG falls within the constitutional category of:

• A. Sixth Schedule areas
• B. Fifth Schedule (Scheduled) Areas
• C. Union Territory
• D. Fourth Schedule areas

Q92. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Diversion of agricultural land to non-agricultural use in CG requires an order of the:

• A. Civil Court
• B. Competent revenue authority under the Land Revenue Code
• C. Gram Sabha
• D. Rent Authority

Q93. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Restoration of illegally alienated tribal land under Section 170B of the CG Land Revenue Code is directed in favour of the:

• A. Transferee
• B. Original tribal transferor (or heirs)
• C. State only
• D. Gram Panchayat

Q94. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The nistar rights of villagers to fuel, fodder and grazing over unoccupied land in CG are recorded in the:

• A. Charge register
• B. Nistar patrak
• C. Rent register
• D. Decree register

Q95. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Rural self-government in Chhattisgarh is constituted under the:

• A. CG Land Revenue Code
• B. Chhattisgarh Panchayat Raj Adhiniyam, 1993
• C. CG Rent Control Act
• D. CG Excise Act

Q96. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The superior heritable and transferable class of tenure-holder under the CG Land Revenue Code is the:

• A. Occupancy tenant
• B. Bhumiswami
• C. Government lessee
• D. Shikmi tenant

Q97. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Excise offences relating to illicit liquor in Chhattisgarh are prosecuted under the:

• A. CG Rent Control Act
• B. CG Excise Act
• C. CG Panchayat Act
• D. Land Revenue Code

Q98. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Partition of a joint holding among co-Bhumiswamis in Chhattisgarh is effected by the:

• A. Civil court only
• B. Revenue court (Tehsildar/SDO)
• C. Gram Sabha
• D. Rent Authority

Q99. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Time-bound delivery of notified public services in Chhattisgarh with penalty for default is guaranteed under the:

• A. CG Excise Act
• B. Chhattisgarh Lok Sewa Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2011
• C. CG Rent Control Act
• D. CG Land Revenue Code

Q100. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Administrative control over the subordinate judiciary of Chhattisgarh vests, under Article 235, in the:

• A. State Government
• B. Chhattisgarh High Court
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Collector