Bihar APO 2026 — Full Mock 1 (100 Questions)

Q1. [BNS 2023] Culpable homicide is defined under which section of the BNS, 2023?

• A. Section 99
• B. Section 100
• C. Section 101
• D. Section 103

Q2. [BNS 2023] Murder is defined under which section of the BNS, 2023?

• A. Section 100
• B. Section 101
• C. Section 103
• D. Section 105

Q3. [BNS 2023] Punishment for culpable homicide not amounting to murder is in:

• A. Section 103
• B. Section 105
• C. Section 106
• D. Section 110

Q4. [BNS 2023] Causing death by negligence (general) is punishable under BNS with imprisonment up to:

• A. 2 years
• B. 5 years
• C. 7 years
• D. 3 years

Q5. [BNS 2023] ‘Theft’ is defined and punished under which section of the BNS?

• A. Section 301
• B. Section 303
• C. Section 305
• D. Section 309

Q6. [BNS 2023] ‘Snatching’, a new offence, is dealt with under:

• A. Section 302
• B. Section 304
• C. Section 306
• D. Section 308

Q7. [BNS 2023] ‘Robbery’ is defined under which section of the BNS?

• A. Section 309
• B. Section 310
• C. Section 311
• D. Section 312

Q8. [BNS 2023] Dacoity (robbery/attempt by five or more persons) is defined under:

• A. Section 309
• B. Section 310
• C. Section 311
• D. Section 313

Q9. [BNS 2023] Criminal conspiracy is dealt with under which section of the BNS?

• A. Section 61
• B. Section 62
• C. Section 111
• D. Section 120

Q10. [BNS 2023] Organised crime is a distinct offence under the BNS in:

• A. Section 109
• B. Section 111
• C. Section 113
• D. Section 115

Q11. [BNS 2023] Terrorist act is defined as an offence under which section of the BNS?

• A. Section 111
• B. Section 112
• C. Section 113
• D. Section 152

Q12. [BNS 2023] ‘Petty organised crime’ is covered under:

• A. Section 110
• B. Section 111
• C. Section 112
• D. Section 113

Q13. [BNS 2023] Act endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India (replacing sedition) is in:

• A. Section 147
• B. Section 150
• C. Section 152
• D. Section 197

Q14. [BNS 2023] Common intention (joint liability) is embodied in the BNS under:

• A. Section 3(5)
• B. Section 3(6)
• C. Section 61
• D. Section 190

Q15. [BNS 2023] Right of private defence of the body extends to causing death in cases listed in:

• A. Section 34
• B. Section 35
• C. Section 38
• D. Section 44

Q16. [BNS 2023] Under the BNS the age below which a child is doli incapax (nothing is an offence) is:

• A. Under 7 years
• B. Under 12 years
• C. Under 10 years
• D. Under 6 years

Q17. [BNS 2023] Grievous hurt is defined under which section of the BNS?

• A. Section 114
• B. Section 116
• C. Section 117
• D. Section 120

Q18. [BNS 2023] Wrongful restraint is defined under BNS in:

• A. Section 126
• B. Section 127
• C. Section 128
• D. Section 130

Q19. [BNS 2023] Kidnapping is defined under which section of the BNS?

• A. Section 135
• B. Section 137
• C. Section 139
• D. Section 140

Q20. [BNS 2023] Rape is defined under which section of the BNS, 2023?

• A. Section 63
• B. Section 64
• C. Section 65
• D. Section 66

Q21. [BNS 2023] Punishment for mob lynching (murder by a group on specified grounds) under BNS is in:

• A. Section 101(2)
• B. Section 103(2)
• C. Section 105
• D. Section 111

Q22. [BNS 2023] Cheating is defined under which section of the BNS?

• A. Section 316
• B. Section 318
• C. Section 320
• D. Section 322

Q23. [BNS 2023] Criminal breach of trust is defined under BNS in:

• A. Section 314
• B. Section 316
• C. Section 318
• D. Section 320

Q24. [BNS 2023] Defamation is dealt with under which section of the BNS?

• A. Section 354
• B. Section 356
• C. Section 358
• D. Section 360

Q25. [BNS 2023] Abetment of suicide of a child or person of unsound mind is punishable under BNS in:

• A. Section 107
• B. Section 108
• C. Section 45
• D. Section 46

Q26. [BNSS 2023] Registration of FIR for a cognizable offence, incl. e-FIR and Zero FIR, is under:

• A. Section 154
• B. Section 173
• C. Section 175
• D. Section 176

Q27. [BNSS 2023] Power of police to investigate a cognizable case is under BNSS section:

• A. Section 156
• B. Section 175
• C. Section 177
• D. Section 190

Q28. [BNSS 2023] Forensic expert’s visit to the crime scene is mandatory for offences punishable with:

• A. 3 years+
• B. 5 years+
• C. 7 years+
• D. 10 years+

Q29. [BNSS 2023] Maximum period of police custody portion under s.187 BNSS is:

• A. 7 days
• B. 14 days
• C. 15 days
• D. 24 hours

Q30. [BNSS 2023] Default bail on failure to complete investigation for a 10-year+ offence accrues after:

• A. 60 days
• B. 90 days
• C. 40 days
• D. 30 days

Q31. [BNSS 2023] Statement of witnesses recorded by police is under which BNSS section?

• A. Section 161
• B. Section 180
• C. Section 183
• D. Section 164

Q32. [BNSS 2023] Recording of confessions and statements by a Magistrate is under BNSS:

• A. Section 164
• B. Section 180
• C. Section 183
• D. Section 190

Q33. [BNSS 2023] Trial in absentia of a proclaimed absconder is newly permitted under:

• A. Section 355
• B. Section 356
• C. Section 84
• D. Section 299

Q34. [BNSS 2023] Anticipatory bail is provided under which section of the BNSS?

• A. Section 438
• B. Section 480
• C. Section 482
• D. Section 483

Q35. [BNSS 2023] Regular bail in non-bailable offences is dealt with under BNSS:

• A. Section 437
• B. Section 480
• C. Section 483
• D. Section 484

Q36. [BNSS 2023] Inherent powers of the High Court are preserved under BNSS in:

• A. Section 482
• B. Section 528
• C. Section 483
• D. Section 401

Q37. [BNSS 2023] Cognizance of offences by a Magistrate is taken under BNSS:

• A. Section 190
• B. Section 210
• C. Section 223
• D. Section 200

Q38. [BNSS 2023] Time limit for a Magistrate to decide on cognizance after a police report, per BNSS reforms, emphasises:

• A. No time limit
• B. Fixed statutory timelines for stages
• C. Only oral orders
• D. Unlimited adjournments

Q39. [BNSS 2023] Supply of a copy of the FIR to the informant is:

• A. Discretionary
• B. Free of cost and mandatory
• C. On payment only
• D. Not required

Q40. [BNSS 2023] Summons may now be served through electronic means under BNSS — this reflects:

• A. s.61 electronic service
• B. No such provision
• C. Only registered post
• D. Personal service only

Q41. [BSA 2023] ‘Evidence’ is defined under which section of the BSA, 2023?

• A. Section 2
• B. Section 3
• C. Section 4
• D. Section 5

Q42. [BSA 2023] Facts which need not be proved (judicial notice) are dealt with under BSA:

• A. Section 51-52
• B. Section 55-56
• C. Section 5-6
• D. Section 45

Q43. [BSA 2023] Admissibility of electronic records is governed primarily by BSA:

• A. Sections 61-63
• B. Sections 65A-65B
• C. Section 45
• D. Section 27

Q44. [BSA 2023] Confession to police officer is inadmissible — this rule appears in BSA:

• A. Section 22
• B. Section 23
• C. Section 24
• D. Section 25

Q45. [BSA 2023] How much of information from an accused leading to discovery is admissible — governed by BSA:

• A. Section 23(2)
• B. Section 27
• C. Section 24
• D. Section 21

Q46. [BSA 2023] Dying declaration is relevant under BSA in:

• A. Section 26
• B. Section 32
• C. Section 33
• D. Section 6

Q47. [BSA 2023] Burden of proof (general) lies on the person who would fail if no evidence were given — BSA:

• A. Section 101
• B. Section 104
• C. Section 105
• D. Section 106

Q48. [BSA 2023] Expert opinion is relevant under which section of the BSA, 2023?

• A. Section 39
• B. Section 45
• C. Section 51
• D. Section 79

Q49. [BSA 2023] Presumption as to genuineness of electronic/digital records is strengthened under BSA reflecting:

• A. No presumption
• B. Statutory presumptions for e-records
• C. Only oral proof
• D. Handwriting only

Q50. [BSA 2023] Number of witnesses required to prove a fact under BSA is:

• A. Exactly two
• B. At least three
• C. No particular number
• D. Five for grave offences

Q51. [BSA 2023] Estoppel is dealt with under BSA in:

• A. Section 121
• B. Section 122
• C. Section 123
• D. Section 120

Q52. [BSA 2023] A leading question is defined and regulated under BSA in:

• A. Section 146
• B. Section 147
• C. Section 148
• D. Section 150

Q53. [Special Acts] Complaint under s.138 NI Act must be filed within (of cause of action):

• A. 15 days
• B. 30 days (one month)
• C. 45 days
• D. 90 days

Q54. [Special Acts] Notice to the drawer after cheque dishonour under s.138 NI Act must be given within:

• A. 7 days
• B. 15 days
• C. 30 days
• D. 45 days

Q55. [Special Acts] Under the NDPS Act, bail restrictions for commercial quantity are in:

• A. Section 27
• B. Section 37
• C. Section 42
• D. Section 50

Q56. [Special Acts] Safeguard on search of a person under the NDPS Act is in:

• A. Section 41
• B. Section 42
• C. Section 50
• D. Section 57

Q57. [Special Acts] Under the POCSO Act, a ‘child’ is a person below the age of:

• A. 16
• B. 18
• C. 21
• D. 14

Q58. [Special Acts] POCSO courts must ideally complete trial within:

• A. 6 months
• B. 1 year
• C. 2 years
• D. No limit

Q59. [Special Acts] Prior approval before investigating a public servant is under the PC Act:

• A. Section 17A
• B. Section 19
• C. Section 13
• D. Section 7

Q60. [Special Acts] Sanction for prosecution of a public servant under the PC Act is under:

• A. Section 17A
• B. Section 19
• C. Section 13(1)(d)
• D. Section 11

Q61. [Special Acts] Criminal misconduct by a public servant is defined in the PC Act under:

• A. Section 7
• B. Section 11
• C. Section 13
• D. Section 15

Q62. [Special Acts] Under the JJ Act 2015, a child in conflict with law aged 16-18 may be tried as an adult for:

• A. All offences
• B. Heinous offences
• C. Petty offences
• D. No offences

Q63. [Special Acts] The Arms Act offence of possessing prohibited arms carries punishment under:

• A. Section 25
• B. Section 27
• C. Section 3
• D. Section 7

Q64. [Special Acts] Under the PMLA, the offence of money laundering is defined in:

• A. Section 3
• B. Section 4
• C. Section 5
• D. Section 8

Q65. [Special Acts] Attachment of property under PMLA is provided in:

• A. Section 3
• B. Section 5
• C. Section 8
• D. Section 24

Q66. [Special Acts] Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005, relief is granted by:

• A. Only the police
• B. The Magistrate
• C. The High Court only
• D. Panchayat

Q67. [Special Acts] Under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, anticipatory bail is:

• A. Freely available
• B. Generally barred (s.18)
• C. Only for women
• D. Automatic

Q68. [Special Acts] Under the Motor Vehicles Act, the offence of rash driving causing death is prosecuted with BNS s.106 read with:

• A. MV Act s.184
• B. MV Act s.185
• C. MV Act s.199
• D. MV Act s.166

Q69. [Special Acts] Under the Information Technology Act, punishment for identity theft is in:

• A. Section 66
• B. Section 66C
• C. Section 67
• D. Section 72

Q70. [Special Acts] Publishing sexually explicit material electronically is punishable under the IT Act:

• A. Section 66
• B. Section 67
• C. Section 67A
• D. Section 69

Q71. [Constitution] Directive Principles are contained in which Part of the Constitution?

• A. Part III
• B. Part IV
• C. Part IVA
• D. Part V

Q72. [Constitution] Right to constitutional remedies (Supreme Court writs) is under:

• A. Article 32
• B. Article 226
• C. Article 136
• D. Article 143

Q73. [Constitution] High Court writ jurisdiction ‘for any other purpose’ is under:

• A. Article 32
• B. Article 226
• C. Article 227
• D. Article 235

Q74. [Constitution] Administrative control over subordinate courts vests in the High Court under:

• A. Article 233
• B. Article 234
• C. Article 235
• D. Article 236

Q75. [Constitution] Direct recruitment of District Judges from the Bar requires practice of not less than:

• A. 5 years
• B. 7 years
• C. 10 years
• D. 3 years

Q76. [Constitution] Protection of life and personal liberty is guaranteed by:

• A. Article 19
• B. Article 20
• C. Article 21
• D. Article 22

Q77. [Constitution] Protection against double jeopardy is under:

• A. Article 20(1)
• B. Article 20(2)
• C. Article 20(3)
• D. Article 22

Q78. [Constitution] Protection against self-incrimination is under:

• A. Article 20(1)
• B. Article 20(2)
• C. Article 20(3)
• D. Article 21

Q79. [Constitution] The ‘basic structure’ doctrine was laid down in:

• A. Golaknath
• B. Kesavananda Bharati
• C. Minerva Mills
• D. Maneka Gandhi

Q80. [Constitution] Equality before law and equal protection of laws is guaranteed by:

• A. Article 13
• B. Article 14
• C. Article 15
• D. Article 16

Q81. [Contract/Civil] An agreement without consideration is valid if made out of natural love and affection, in writing and registered — under:

• A. Section 10
• B. Section 23
• C. Section 25
• D. Section 56

Q82. [Contract/Civil] A contract to do an act which afterwards becomes impossible is void — this is:

• A. Section 23
• B. Section 56
• C. Section 65
• D. Section 73

Q83. [Contract/Civil] Compensation for loss caused by breach of contract is under:

• A. Section 73
• B. Section 74
• C. Section 75
• D. Section 39

Q84. [Contract/Civil] Under the Limitation Act, a suit for possession based on title must be filed within:

• A. 3 years
• B. 12 years
• C. 30 years
• D. 6 years

Q85. [Contract/Civil] Specific performance of a contract is granted under the:

• A. Indian Contract Act
• B. Specific Relief Act 1963
• C. Transfer of Property Act
• D. CPC

Q86. [Legal GK] The new criminal laws BNS, BNSS and BSA came into force on:

• A. 15 Aug 2023
• B. 1 Jul 2024
• C. 26 Jan 2024
• D. 1 Apr 2024

Q87. [Legal GK] The Bihar APO recruitment (Advt. 13/2026) is conducted by:

• A. Patna High Court
• B. BPSC
• C. BSSC
• D. Directorate of Prosecution

Q88. [Legal GK] Assistant Prosecution Officers function under which department in Bihar?

• A. Law Department
• B. Home (Prosecution) Department
• C. Personnel Department
• D. Judicial Department

Q89. [Legal GK] The Chief Justice of India as of mid-2026 heads which institution?

• A. High Court
• B. Supreme Court of India
• C. Law Commission
• D. NHRC

Q90. [Legal GK] The three new criminal codes replaced which older laws respectively?

• A. IPC, CrPC, Evidence Act
• B. CrPC, IPC, Evidence Act
• C. IPC, Evidence Act, CrPC
• D. Evidence Act, IPC, CrPC

Q91. [Legal GK] The public prosecutor for the State in a Sessions trial is appointed under BNSS:

• A. Section 24
• B. Section 18
• C. Section 20
• D. Section 25

Q92. [Legal GK] ‘Plea bargaining’ in criminal cases is provided in the BNSS in:

• A. Chapter XXI
• B. Chapter XXIII
• C. Chapter XXII
• D. Chapter XX

Q93. [Legal GK] Community service as a punishment is a new feature introduced by:

• A. BNSS only
• B. BNS (for certain offences)
• C. BSA
• D. IT Act

Q94. [Legal GK] ‘Mercy petition’ timelines for death-row convicts are now streamlined under:

• A. BNS
• B. BNSS
• C. BSA
• D. Constitution

Q95. [Legal GK] Victim compensation scheme is provided under the BNSS in:

• A. Section 357
• B. Section 395
• C. Section 396
• D. Section 400

Q96. [General Studies] The capital of Bihar is:

• A. Gaya
• B. Bhagalpur
• C. Patna
• D. Muzaffarpur

Q97. [General Studies] The Patna High Court was established in the year:

• A. 1916
• B. 1919
• C. 1935
• D. 1950

Q98. [General Studies] Which article makes the Governor the appointing authority for District Judges (on HC recommendation)?

• A. Article 233
• B. Article 217
• C. Article 124
• D. Article 226

Q99. [General Studies] The National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG) is primarily used for:

• A. Drafting laws
• B. Tracking pendency of cases
• C. Appointing judges
• D. Legal aid funding

Q100. [General Studies] The doctrine ‘audi alteram partem’ means:

• A. No one is judge in his own cause
• B. Hear the other side
• C. Justice delayed is denied
• D. Law does not compel the impossible