Bihar APO 2026 — Full Mock 2 (100 Questions)

Q1. [BNS 2023] Under the BNS, 2023, dowry death is dealt with under which section?

• A. Section 78
• B. Section 80
• C. Section 85
• D. Section 108

Q2. [BNS 2023] Cruelty to a woman by her husband or his relatives is punishable under BNS:

• A. Section 84
• B. Section 85
• C. Section 86
• D. Section 87

Q3. [BNS 2023] Criminal intimidation is defined under which section of the BNS?

• A. Section 349
• B. Section 351
• C. Section 353
• D. Section 356

Q4. [BNS 2023] ‘Stalking’ as an offence against women is dealt with under BNS:

• A. Section 75
• B. Section 77
• C. Section 78
• D. Section 79

Q5. [BNS 2023] Voyeurism is punishable under which section of the BNS?

• A. Section 75
• B. Section 76
• C. Section 77
• D. Section 79

Q6. [BNS 2023] Sexual harassment is dealt with under BNS in:

• A. Section 74
• B. Section 75
• C. Section 76
• D. Section 78

Q7. [BNS 2023] Attempt to murder is punishable under which section of the BNS?

• A. Section 107
• B. Section 109
• C. Section 110
• D. Section 113

Q8. [BNS 2023] Extortion is defined under which section of the BNS?

• A. Section 304
• B. Section 306
• C. Section 308
• D. Section 310

Q9. [BNS 2023] ‘Abetment of a thing’ is defined under BNS in:

• A. Section 45
• B. Section 46
• C. Section 48
• D. Section 49

Q10. [BNS 2023] A criminal conspiracy requires an agreement between:

• A. One person only
• B. Two or more persons
• C. At least five persons
• D. A public servant and another

Q11. [BNS 2023] Punishment for voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons is enhanced because such acts are:

• A. Bailable always
• B. More culpable
• C. Compoundable
• D. Not offences

Q12. [BNS 2023] Under the BNS, an ‘unlawful assembly’ must consist of at least how many persons?

• A. Three
• B. Five
• C. Seven
• D. Ten

Q13. [BNS 2023] The offence of rioting essentially involves:

• A. A single person’s violence
• B. Use of force/violence by an unlawful assembly
• C. A cheating transaction
• D. A civil wrong only

Q14. [BNS 2023] Which is an essential ingredient of theft?

• A. Immovable property
• B. Dishonest taking of movable property without consent
• C. Use of force
• D. A written agreement

Q15. [BNS 2023] Robbery is essentially:

• A. Theft or extortion aggravated by force or fear
• B. A breach of contract
• C. A civil trespass
• D. Only house-breaking

Q16. [BNS 2023] ‘Culpable homicide’ becomes ‘murder’ when it falls within the special conditions and none of the exceptions apply — the exceptions include:

• A. Grave and sudden provocation
• B. Breach of contract
• C. Non-payment of debt
• D. Civil negligence

Q17. [BNS 2023] Forgery involves making a false document with intent to:

• A. Cause damage or injury / support a claim
• B. Perform a contract
• C. Register a firm
• D. Pay tax

Q18. [BNS 2023] Cheating by personation is a specific form of:

• A. Theft
• B. Cheating
• C. Extortion
• D. Criminal trespass

Q19. [BNS 2023] The mental element (mens rea) generally required for theft is:

• A. Negligence
• B. Dishonest intention
• C. Good faith
• D. Strict liability

Q20. [BNS 2023] Acid attack (voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid) is treated under BNS as a:

• A. Bailable minor offence
• B. Grave offence with stringent punishment
• C. Civil wrong
• D. Compoundable offence

Q21. [BNS 2023] Abetment by a person present when the offence is committed makes the abettor:

• A. Not liable
• B. Liable as if he committed the offence
• C. Liable only for a fine
• D. A witness

Q22. [BNS 2023] Which of the following is NOT one of the general punishments under the BNS?

• A. Death
• B. Imprisonment for life
• C. Community service
• D. Transportation for life

Q23. [BNS 2023] Community service as a punishment under the BNS is available for:

• A. All offences
• B. Certain petty offences
• C. Only murder
• D. Only economic offences

Q24. [BNS 2023] ‘Wrongful confinement’ differs from ‘wrongful restraint’ in that confinement:

• A. Restrains within certain limits
• B. Only stops a person in one direction
• C. Requires a weapon
• D. Is a civil wrong

Q25. [BNS 2023] The doctrine of ‘transferred malice’ (act intended for one falls on another) is recognised in the BNS reflecting old:

• A. Section 301 IPC
• B. Section 34 IPC
• C. Section 120B IPC
• D. Section 511 IPC

Q26. [BNSS 2023] Under the BNSS, a person arrested must be produced before a Magistrate within (excluding travel time):

• A. 12 hours
• B. 24 hours
• C. 48 hours
• D. 72 hours

Q27. [BNSS 2023] Maintenance of wives, children and parents is provided in the BNSS in the chapter corresponding to old:

• A. Section 125 CrPC
• B. Section 144 CrPC
• C. Section 145 CrPC
• D. Section 156 CrPC

Q28. [BNSS 2023] Withdrawal from prosecution by a Public Prosecutor requires:

• A. No permission
• B. Consent of the court
• C. Only Government order
• D. Consent of the accused

Q29. [BNSS 2023] The power to order security for keeping the peace and good behaviour is a:

• A. Punitive power
• B. Preventive power of the Magistrate
• C. Power of the police only
• D. Civil remedy

Q30. [BNSS 2023] A summons-case and a warrant-case are distinguished primarily by:

• A. The court fee
• B. The gravity/punishment of the offence
• C. The language of the FIR
• D. The number of accused

Q31. [BNSS 2023] Compounding of certain offences under the BNSS:

• A. Is never allowed
• B. Is allowed for specified offences, some with court permission
• C. Requires a fresh FIR
• D. Needs High Court sanction always

Q32. [BNSS 2023] The examination of the accused by the court to explain incriminating circumstances corresponds to old:

• A. Section 313 CrPC
• B. Section 161 CrPC
• C. Section 164 CrPC
• D. Section 154 CrPC

Q33. [BNSS 2023] A First Information Report relates to a:

• A. Non-cognizable offence only
• B. Cognizable offence
• C. Civil dispute
• D. Contempt matter

Q34. [BNSS 2023] In a non-cognizable case, the police can investigate:

• A. Freely without any order
• B. Only with the order of a Magistrate
• C. Never
• D. Only after charge-sheet

Q35. [BNSS 2023] Bail is a matter of right in a:

• A. Non-bailable offence
• B. Bailable offence
• C. Offence punishable with death
• D. Sessions-triable offence

Q36. [BNSS 2023] Under the BNSS, the use of audio-video electronic means for recording/production is:

• A. Prohibited
• B. Expressly encouraged/enabled
• C. Only for civil cases
• D. Only in the High Court

Q37. [BNSS 2023] A proclamation for a person absconding is issued when:

• A. He is a witness
• B. A warrant cannot be executed as he has absconded
• C. He files an appeal
• D. He is granted bail

Q38. [BNSS 2023] The trial of warrant-cases by Magistrates is conducted in the manner provided for:

• A. Summons-cases
• B. Warrant-cases
• C. Summary trials only
• D. Sessions trials only

Q39. [BNSS 2023] A Magistrate takes cognizance of an offence on:

• A. Only a police report
• B. Complaint, police report, or information/own knowledge
• C. Only a private complaint
• D. Only High Court direction

Q40. [BNSS 2023] Anticipatory bail is granted by:

• A. Only the Magistrate
• B. The Sessions Court or High Court
• C. Only the police
• D. The Executive Magistrate

Q41. [BSA 2023] Facts so connected as to form part of the same transaction (res gestae) are relevant — this principle corresponds to old:

• A. Section 6 Evidence Act
• B. Section 24 Evidence Act
• C. Section 45 Evidence Act
• D. Section 32 Evidence Act

Q42. [BSA 2023] An admission is:

• A. Always conclusive proof
• B. A statement suggesting an inference about a fact in issue, not conclusive
• C. Only a confession
• D. Irrelevant

Q43. [BSA 2023] A confession made to a police officer is:

• A. Fully admissible
• B. Inadmissible against the accused
• C. Admissible with sanction
• D. Admissible only in appeal

Q44. [BSA 2023] ‘May presume’, ‘shall presume’ and ‘conclusive proof’ are:

• A. Types of witnesses
• B. Kinds of presumptions
• C. Types of documents
• D. Modes of arrest

Q45. [BSA 2023] Primary evidence means:

• A. A certified copy
• B. The document itself produced for inspection
• C. Oral account of a document
• D. A photograph of a document

Q46. [BSA 2023] Secondary evidence includes:

• A. The original document
• B. Certified copies and copies made from the original
• C. Only oral evidence
• D. Only electronic records

Q47. [BSA 2023] The burden of proving that a case falls within an exception (e.g., private defence) lies on:

• A. The prosecution
• B. The accused
• C. The court
• D. The witness

Q48. [BSA 2023] A ‘leading question’ is one which:

• A. Cannot be answered
• B. Suggests the answer desired
• C. Is asked only in re-examination
• D. Is about character

Q49. [BSA 2023] Leading questions are generally permitted in:

• A. Examination-in-chief
• B. Cross-examination
• C. Re-examination only
• D. Never

Q50. [BSA 2023] Opinion of a handwriting/finger-impression expert is:

• A. Irrelevant
• B. A relevant fact
• C. Conclusive proof
• D. Hearsay only

Q51. [BSA 2023] ‘Hearsay evidence’ is generally:

• A. Admissible
• B. Inadmissible (with recognised exceptions like dying declaration)
• C. Conclusive
• D. Only for civil cases

Q52. [BSA 2023] The number of witnesses required to prove any fact is:

• A. Two
• B. Three
• C. No particular number
• D. Five for grave offences

Q53. [Special Acts] Under s.138 NI Act, the cheque must be presented within its validity period, which is generally:

• A. 1 month
• B. 3 months
• C. 6 months
• D. 1 year

Q54. [Special Acts] The offence under s.138 NI Act is:

• A. Cognizable and non-bailable
• B. A complaint-based, bailable offence
• C. Non-compoundable
• D. Triable by Sessions

Q55. [Special Acts] Under the NDPS Act, ‘conscious possession’ means:

• A. Physical custody only
• B. Possession with knowledge/awareness
• C. Ownership only
• D. Joint family property

Q56. [Special Acts] The NDPS Act creates a reverse burden of proof under:

• A. Section 35 and Section 54
• B. Section 20 only
• C. Section 8 only
• D. Section 50 only

Q57. [Special Acts] Under the POCSO Act, the offence is:

• A. Gender-specific to girls
• B. Gender-neutral
• C. Only for boys
• D. Only for adults

Q58. [Special Acts] Under POCSO, there is a statutory presumption of:

• A. Innocence
• B. Guilt (culpable mental state) once foundational facts are shown
• C. No presumption
• D. Presumption only in appeal

Q59. [Special Acts] Under the PC Act, acceptance of undue advantage by a public servant is an offence under:

• A. Section 7
• B. Section 12
• C. Section 13(1)(a)
• D. Section 19

Q60. [Special Acts] Bribe-giving was made a specific offence by the 2018 amendment to the PC Act under:

• A. Section 7
• B. Section 8
• C. Section 9
• D. Section 12

Q61. [Special Acts] Under the JJ Act 2015, matters relating to children in conflict with law are decided by the:

• A. Sessions Court
• B. Juvenile Justice Board
• C. High Court
• D. District Magistrate

Q62. [Special Acts] Under the JJ Act, a ‘child in need of care and protection’ is dealt with by the:

• A. JJB
• B. Child Welfare Committee
• C. Family Court
• D. Labour Court

Q63. [Special Acts] Under the Arms Act, carrying arms without a licence is an offence under:

• A. Section 3 read with 25
• B. Section 27 only
• C. Section 7
• D. Section 5

Q64. [Special Acts] Under the PMLA, the burden to show that proceeds of crime are untainted lies on:

• A. The prosecution (ED)
• B. The accused
• C. The court
• D. The bank

Q65. [Special Acts] Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, the person who assists the aggrieved woman is the:

• A. Public Prosecutor
• B. Protection Officer
• C. Probation Officer
• D. Special Judge

Q66. [Special Acts] Under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, cases are tried by:

• A. Magistrate courts
• B. Special/Exclusive Special Courts
• C. Family Courts
• D. Executive Magistrates

Q67. [Special Acts] Under the IT Act, tampering with computer source documents is an offence under:

• A. Section 65
• B. Section 66
• C. Section 67
• D. Section 72

Q68. [Special Acts] Under the IT Act, punishment for cheating by personation using a computer resource is under:

• A. Section 66C
• B. Section 66D
• C. Section 67
• D. Section 43

Q69. [Special Acts] Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a complaint of a defective product is filed before the:

• A. Civil Court
• B. Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
• C. Sessions Court
• D. Labour Court

Q70. [Special Acts] Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, giving or taking dowry is:

• A. Legal with registration
• B. A punishable offence
• C. A civil matter
• D. Allowed up to a limit

Q71. [Constitution] Freedom of speech and expression is guaranteed under:

• A. Article 19(1)(a)
• B. Article 19(1)(b)
• C. Article 21
• D. Article 25

Q72. [Constitution] Protection in respect of conviction for offences (no ex-post-facto law) is under:

• A. Article 20(1)
• B. Article 20(2)
• C. Article 20(3)
• D. Article 21

Q73. [Constitution] The right against exploitation (prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour) is under:

• A. Articles 23-24
• B. Articles 25-28
• C. Articles 29-30
• D. Article 32

Q74. [Constitution] Which writ is issued to produce a detained person before the court?

• A. Mandamus
• B. Habeas Corpus
• C. Certiorari
• D. Quo Warranto

Q75. [Constitution] The writ of Mandamus is issued to:

• A. Quash an order
• B. Command performance of a public duty
• C. Question a person’s title to office
• D. Transfer a case

Q76. [Constitution] Separation of the judiciary from the executive is a Directive Principle under:

• A. Article 39A
• B. Article 50
• C. Article 44
• D. Article 48

Q77. [Constitution] Equal justice and free legal aid is a Directive Principle under:

• A. Article 39A
• B. Article 41
• C. Article 43
• D. Article 45

Q78. [Constitution] The power of judicial review flows primarily from:

• A. Article 32 and Article 226
• B. Article 74
• C. Article 123
• D. Article 356

Q79. [Constitution] The appointment of a High Court judge is made by the President under:

• A. Article 124
• B. Article 217
• C. Article 233
• D. Article 226

Q80. [Constitution] Which article empowers the Supreme Court to transfer cases and do complete justice?

• A. Article 141
• B. Article 142
• C. Article 143
• D. Article 144

Q81. [Contract/Civil] A voidable contract is one which is:

• A. Void from the start
• B. Enforceable at the option of one party
• C. Illegal
• D. Impossible to perform

Q82. [Contract/Civil] Consideration under the Indian Contract Act must be:

• A. Adequate
• B. Lawful (need not be adequate)
• C. Only monetary
• D. In writing

Q83. [Contract/Civil] An agreement in restraint of trade is, as a rule:

• A. Valid
• B. Void
• C. Voidable
• D. Illegal and punishable

Q84. [Contract/Civil] Under the Transfer of Property Act, a ‘sale’ of immovable property of value Rs.100 or more must be made by:

• A. Oral agreement
• B. A registered instrument
• C. A promissory note
• D. Mere delivery

Q85. [Contract/Civil] Under the Specific Relief Act, 2018, specific performance of a contract is now:

• A. A discretionary exception
• B. A general rule/remedy
• C. Abolished
• D. Only for the government

Q86. [Legal GK] The three new criminal laws were passed by Parliament in:

• A. 2020
• B. 2021
• C. 2023
• D. 2024

Q87. [Legal GK] ‘Zero FIR’ allows an FIR to be registered:

• A. Only at the place of offence
• B. At any police station regardless of jurisdiction
• C. Only online
• D. Only by a Magistrate

Q88. [Legal GK] The Directorate of Prosecution is headed by the:

• A. Advocate General
• B. Director of Prosecution
• C. District Judge
• D. Chief Secretary

Q89. [Legal GK] An Assistant Prosecution Officer primarily conducts prosecution in:

• A. High Court
• B. Courts of Magistrates
• C. Supreme Court
• D. Family Courts

Q90. [Legal GK] A Public Prosecutor for the High Court is appointed under the BNSS in consultation with the:

• A. Governor
• B. High Court
• C. Bar Council
• D. District Judge

Q91. [Legal GK] ‘Plea bargaining’ is available for offences:

• A. Punishable with death or life
• B. Not punishable with death, life, or over 7 years, and not against women/children
• C. All offences
• D. Only economic offences

Q92. [Legal GK] The concept of ‘audio-video recording of search and seizure’ is a reform introduced by:

• A. BNS
• B. BNSS
• C. BSA
• D. IT Act

Q93. [Legal GK] ‘Restorative justice’ for victims under the new codes is advanced through:

• A. Victim compensation and rights
• B. Higher court fees
• C. Longer custody
• D. Abolishing appeals

Q94. [Legal GK] The maximum period within which a charge-sheet must ordinarily be filed for an offence triable by a Magistrate (not grave) is:

• A. 60 days
• B. 90 days
• C. 30 days
• D. 180 days

Q95. [Legal GK] A ‘summary trial’ is meant for:

• A. Grave offences
• B. Petty/less serious offences for speedy disposal
• C. Only civil suits
• D. Only appeals

Q96. [General Studies] The High Court for the State of Bihar sits at:

• A. Ranchi
• B. Patna
• C. Gaya
• D. Darbhanga

Q97. [General Studies] Legal aid to weaker sections is delivered through the:

• A. NHRC
• B. National/State/District Legal Services Authorities
• C. Election Commission
• D. CAG

Q98. [General Studies] Lok Adalats derive statutory status from the:

• A. CPC
• B. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
• C. Arbitration Act
• D. Contract Act

Q99. [General Studies] The principle ‘nemo judex in causa sua’ means:

• A. Hear the other side
• B. No one should be a judge in his own cause
• C. Justice hurried is justice buried
• D. Ignorance of law is no excuse

Q100. [General Studies] The doctrine ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means:

• A. Ignorance of fact is an excuse
• B. Ignorance of law is no excuse
• C. Law does not compel the impossible
• D. Let the buyer beware