Bihar APO 2026 — Full Mock 3 (100 Questions)

Q1. [BNS 2023] Under the BNS general exceptions, an act of a child under 7 years is:

• A. An offence
• B. No offence
• C. A compoundable offence
• D. A civil wrong

Q2. [BNS 2023] A child above 7 and under 12 is exempt from criminal liability if:

• A. Always
• B. He has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding
• C. Never
• D. Only for petty offences

Q3. [BNS 2023] ‘Mistake of fact’ is a defence when a person acts:

• A. Knowing it is wrong
• B. In good faith believing himself bound/justified by law
• C. Negligently
• D. Under a contract

Q4. [BNS 2023] An act causing harm done in good faith to prevent greater harm is protected by the defence of:

• A. Consent
• B. Necessity
• C. Accident
• D. Provocation

Q5. [BNS 2023] Voluntary intoxication is generally:

• A. A complete defence
• B. Not a defence to negate mens rea (unless involuntary)
• C. A mitigating factor always
• D. Irrelevant

Q6. [BNS 2023] The right of private defence of property extends to causing death in cases such as:

• A. Simple theft
• B. Robbery, house-breaking by night, mischief by fire on a dwelling
• C. Criminal breach of contract
• D. Defamation

Q7. [BNS 2023] The right of private defence is NOT available:

• A. Against a lawful act of a public servant done in good faith
• B. Against a robber
• C. Against an assailant causing apprehension of death
• D. At night

Q8. [BNS 2023] Human trafficking is dealt with as an offence under the BNS in:

• A. Section 137
• B. Section 143
• C. Section 145
• D. Section 111

Q9. [BNS 2023] ‘Dishonestly’ under the BNS means doing anything with the intention of causing:

• A. Wrongful gain or wrongful loss
• B. Only physical hurt
• C. A civil injury
• D. Public disorder

Q10. [BNS 2023] ‘Fraudulently’ involves an intent to:

• A. Cause wrongful restraint
• B. Defraud
• C. Cause hurt
• D. Trespass

Q11. [BNS 2023] Giving false evidence (perjury) is an offence — it is committed when a person:

• A. Refuses to testify
• B. Being legally bound to state the truth, makes a false statement
• C. Files a civil suit
• D. Is absent

Q12. [BNS 2023] Public servant taking gratification other than legal remuneration is primarily punishable under:

• A. The BNS only
• B. The Prevention of Corruption Act
• C. The IT Act
• D. The Contract Act

Q13. [BNS 2023] Receiving or retaining stolen property knowing it to be stolen is:

• A. No offence
• B. An offence
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Only a fine matter with consent

Q14. [BNS 2023] Criminal misappropriation of property involves:

• A. Taking without consent
• B. Dishonest misappropriation of property already in one’s possession
• C. Forgery
• D. House-trespass

Q15. [BNS 2023] ‘Culpable homicide’ is NOT murder if the offender, whilst deprived of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes death — this is an:

• A. Aggravation
• B. Exception
• C. Abetment
• D. Attempt

Q16. [BNS 2023] Kidnapping for ransom is treated by the BNS as a:

• A. Bailable minor offence
• B. Grave offence with severe punishment (including life/death in extreme cases)
• C. Civil wrong
• D. Compoundable offence

Q17. [BNS 2023] Assault or use of criminal force to a woman with intent to outrage her modesty is an offence against:

• A. Property
• B. A woman’s dignity/modesty
• C. Public tranquillity
• D. The State

Q18. [BNS 2023] Causing miscarriage without the woman’s consent is:

• A. No offence
• B. A more serious offence than with consent
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Always lawful

Q19. [BNS 2023] Solitary confinement can be imposed only:

• A. For any term
• B. Within limits and as part of rigorous imprisonment
• C. For life
• D. By the police

Q20. [BNS 2023] Abetment differs from criminal conspiracy in that conspiracy:

• A. Requires the act to be completed
• B. Is complete on the agreement itself (for serious offences)
• C. Needs only one person
• D. Is a civil wrong

Q21. [BNS 2023] Wrongful gain is gain by:

• A. Lawful means
• B. Unlawful means of property to which one is not legally entitled
• C. Inheritance
• D. Gift

Q22. [BNS 2023] A person abetting an offence which is committed in consequence is punishable:

• A. Not at all
• B. With the punishment provided for the offence (if no express provision)
• C. Only with fine
• D. Only if present

Q23. [BNS 2023] Voluntarily causing hurt to extort property or to constrain to an illegal act is:

• A. Simple hurt
• B. An aggravated offence
• C. No offence
• D. A civil wrong

Q24. [BNS 2023] Criminal force is said to be used when a person:

• A. Merely threatens
• B. Intentionally uses force on another without consent to cause harm/annoyance
• C. Files a complaint
• D. Trespasses on land

Q25. [BNS 2023] The essential difference between culpable homicide and murder lies in the:

• A. Weapon used
• B. Degree of intention/knowledge and probability of death
• C. Place of offence
• D. Age of the accused

Q26. [BNSS 2023] A police officer may arrest without a warrant a person who:

• A. Has filed a civil suit
• B. Is concerned in a cognizable offence
• C. Is a witness
• D. Owes money

Q27. [BNSS 2023] An arrested person has the right to:

• A. Remain untold of grounds
• B. Be informed of grounds of arrest and to consult a lawyer
• C. No medical examination
• D. Indefinite detention

Q28. [BNSS 2023] Framing of a charge is done by the court:

• A. Before investigation
• B. After considering the record and hearing, if there is prima facie case
• C. Only after conviction
• D. By the police

Q29. [BNSS 2023] ‘Discharge’ of an accused happens when:

• A. He is convicted
• B. There is no sufficient ground to proceed
• C. He is granted bail
• D. He absconds

Q30. [BNSS 2023] A confession or plea of guilty recorded by the court results in:

• A. Automatic acquittal
• B. Conviction may follow at the court’s discretion after recording it
• C. Discharge
• D. A civil decree

Q31. [BNSS 2023] The medical examination of an accused (including of a rape accused) is:

• A. Prohibited
• B. Permitted to collect evidence
• C. Only with accused’s consent always
• D. Only in the High Court

Q32. [BNSS 2023] Security for keeping the peace on conviction is a:

• A. Punishment
• B. Preventive measure
• C. Bail condition
• D. Civil bond

Q33. [BNSS 2023] A warrant of arrest is:

• A. An oral order
• B. A written order signed by the presiding officer to arrest
• C. A summons
• D. An FIR

Q34. [BNSS 2023] Bail can be cancelled by:

• A. Only the accused
• B. The court that granted it or a higher court
• C. The police
• D. The complainant

Q35. [BNSS 2023] The maximum sentence a Judicial Magistrate First Class can ordinarily pass is:

• A. 1 year
• B. 3 years
• C. 7 years
• D. Life

Q36. [BNSS 2023] A revision lies to the High Court/Sessions Court to examine:

• A. Only facts
• B. The correctness, legality or propriety of an order
• C. New evidence
• D. A civil matter

Q37. [BNSS 2023] An appeal generally lies against:

• A. An interlocutory order
• B. A conviction/sentence (or acquittal by the State)
• C. A charge
• D. A summons

Q38. [BNSS 2023] Limitation for taking cognizance of an offence punishable up to 1 year is generally:

• A. 6 months
• B. 1 year
• C. 3 years
• D. No limit

Q39. [BNSS 2023] A dispute concerning immovable property likely to cause breach of peace is handled by the:

• A. Civil court only
• B. Executive Magistrate (attachment/possession)
• C. High Court only
• D. Police alone

Q40. [BNSS 2023] Under the BNSS, forensic collection of evidence for grave offences aims to:

• A. Delay trial
• B. Improve conviction quality via scientific evidence
• C. Reduce court fees
• D. Avoid witnesses

Q41. [BSA 2023] Motive, preparation and previous/subsequent conduct are relevant facts corresponding to old:

• A. Section 8 Evidence Act
• B. Section 6 Evidence Act
• C. Section 45 Evidence Act
• D. Section 25 Evidence Act

Q42. [BSA 2023] Anything said or done by a conspirator in reference to the common design is:

• A. Irrelevant
• B. A relevant fact against co-conspirators
• C. Conclusive proof
• D. Inadmissible always

Q43. [BSA 2023] Character of the accused in a criminal case is generally:

• A. Always relevant
• B. Good character relevant; bad character generally irrelevant unless in reply
• C. Conclusive
• D. Never mentioned

Q44. [BSA 2023] A dying declaration is admissible when the statement relates to:

• A. Any topic
• B. The cause of death or circumstances of the transaction resulting in death
• C. A property dispute
• D. A contract

Q45. [BSA 2023] The opinion of the Examiner of Electronic Evidence is:

• A. Irrelevant
• B. A relevant expert opinion
• C. Conclusive proof
• D. Hearsay

Q46. [BSA 2023] Evidence of an accomplice is:

• A. Wholly inadmissible
• B. Admissible; a conviction is not illegal merely because it rests on it, though corroboration is prudent
• C. Conclusive
• D. Only for civil cases

Q47. [BSA 2023] Presumption as to a child born during a valid marriage (legitimacy) is:

• A. A may-presume
• B. Conclusive proof unless non-access is shown
• C. Irrelevant
• D. Only for property

Q48. [BSA 2023] When a person dies within 7 years of marriage and cruelty for dowry is shown, the court:

• A. Must acquit
• B. May presume dowry death
• C. Cannot presume anything
• D. Presumes suicide

Q49. [BSA 2023] A hostile witness is one who:

• A. Supports the party calling him
• B. Turns against the party calling him and may be cross-examined by that party
• C. Is an expert
• D. Is a police officer

Q50. [BSA 2023] Facts showing the existence of a state of mind (intention, knowledge, good faith) are:

• A. Irrelevant
• B. Relevant
• C. Conclusive
• D. Privileged

Q51. [BSA 2023] The credit of a witness may be impeached by:

• A. Praising him
• B. Proof of former inconsistent statements / bias / bad character
• C. Leading questions in chief
• D. Refreshing memory

Q52. [BSA 2023] A witness may refresh his memory by referring to:

• A. Any book
• B. A writing made by him at or about the time of the fact
• C. Newspapers
• D. Another witness

Q53. [Special Acts] The Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act came into force in the year:

• A. 2015
• B. 2016
• C. 2018
• D. 2020

Q54. [Special Acts] Under the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, manufacture/sale/consumption of liquor is:

• A. Permitted with licence
• B. Prohibited and punishable
• C. A civil matter
• D. Allowed for tourists

Q55. [Special Acts] Under the NDPS Act, punishment depends primarily on:

• A. The accused’s age
• B. The quantity (small / intermediate / commercial)
• C. The State
• D. The court

Q56. [Special Acts] Under POCSO, reporting of an offence by a person having knowledge is:

• A. Optional
• B. Mandatory (failure is punishable)
• C. Only by parents
• D. Only by police

Q57. [Special Acts] POCSO cases are tried by:

• A. Regular Magistrate
• B. Special Courts
• C. Family Courts
• D. Executive Magistrate

Q58. [Special Acts] Under the JJ Act, the preliminary assessment for trying a 16-18 year old as an adult is done by:

• A. The Sessions Court
• B. The Juvenile Justice Board
• C. The police
• D. The CWC

Q59. [Special Acts] Under the PC Act, sanction to prosecute a public servant must ordinarily be decided within:

• A. 1 month
• B. 3 months (extendable by 1 month)
• C. 6 months
• D. 1 year

Q60. [Special Acts] Under the PMLA, the adjudicating authority confirms attachment within:

• A. 30 days
• B. 180 days
• C. 1 year
• D. No limit

Q61. [Special Acts] Under the DV Act, reliefs available include:

• A. Only divorce
• B. Protection, residence, monetary, custody and compensation orders
• C. Only maintenance
• D. Only criminal punishment

Q62. [Special Acts] Under the IT Act, an intermediary’s exemption from liability (safe harbour) is provided in:

• A. Section 66
• B. Section 69
• C. Section 79
• D. Section 43A

Q63. [Special Acts] Under the IT Act, powers to intercept, monitor or decrypt information are in:

• A. Section 66
• B. Section 67
• C. Section 69
• D. Section 72

Q64. [Special Acts] Under the Motor Vehicles Act, a claim for compensation for a road-accident death is filed before the:

• A. Civil Court
• B. Motor Accident Claims Tribunal
• C. Consumer Commission
• D. Sessions Court

Q65. [Special Acts] Under s.139 of the NI Act, the court shall presume that the cheque was issued:

• A. Without consideration
• B. For the discharge of a debt or liability
• C. As a gift
• D. Under coercion

Q66. [Special Acts] Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the District Commission has pecuniary jurisdiction up to (as amended):

• A. Rs.20 lakh
• B. Rs.50 lakh
• C. Rs.1 crore
• D. Rs.10 crore

Q67. [Special Acts] The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act primarily targets:

• A. Drug trafficking
• B. Commercial sexual exploitation/trafficking
• C. Money laundering
• D. Wildlife trade

Q68. [Special Acts] Under the Arms Act, the licensing authority for arms is generally the:

• A. Police Station
• B. District Magistrate
• C. High Court
• D. Panchayat

Q69. [Special Acts] Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the power to take measures to protect the environment vests in the:

• A. Central Government
• B. State Legislature
• C. Panchayat
• D. Consumer Commission

Q70. [Special Acts] The Juvenile Justice Board is headed/comprises:

• A. A Sessions Judge
• B. A Metropolitan/JMFC Magistrate and two social workers
• C. A police officer
• D. A civil judge

Q71. [Constitution] The procedure for amendment of the Constitution is laid down in:

• A. Article 356
• B. Article 368
• C. Article 370
• D. Article 352

Q72. [Constitution] The right to property is now a:

• A. Fundamental right under Art.19(1)(f)
• B. Constitutional/legal right under Art.300A
• C. Directive Principle
• D. Fundamental duty

Q73. [Constitution] ‘State’ for the purpose of fundamental rights is defined in:

• A. Article 12
• B. Article 13
• C. Article 14
• D. Article 19

Q74. [Constitution] Laws inconsistent with fundamental rights are void under:

• A. Article 12
• B. Article 13
• C. Article 32
• D. Article 245

Q75. [Constitution] President’s Rule in a State is imposed under:

• A. Article 352
• B. Article 356
• C. Article 360
• D. Article 365

Q76. [Constitution] A national emergency on grounds of war/external aggression/armed rebellion is under:

• A. Article 352
• B. Article 356
• C. Article 360
• D. Article 365

Q77. [Constitution] Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the:

• A. 42nd Amendment
• B. 44th Amendment
• C. 73rd Amendment
• D. 86th Amendment

Q78. [Constitution] Public Interest Litigation (PIL) primarily relaxes the rule of:

• A. Res judicata
• B. Locus standi
• C. Double jeopardy
• D. Estoppel

Q79. [Constitution] The Supreme Court’s law declared is binding on all courts under:

• A. Article 141
• B. Article 142
• C. Article 143
• D. Article 144

Q80. [Constitution] Free legal aid is closely linked to which fundamental right?

• A. Article 14
• B. Article 21
• C. Article 19
• D. Article 25

Q81. [Contract/Civil] A contract of indemnity is one where one party promises to:

• A. Answer for another’s default
• B. Save the other from loss caused by the promisor or a third party
• C. Deliver goods
• D. Pay rent

Q82. [Contract/Civil] In a contract of guarantee, the person who gives the guarantee is the:

• A. Principal debtor
• B. Surety
• C. Creditor
• D. Bailee

Q83. [Contract/Civil] Bailment involves delivery of goods for a purpose, to be returned or disposed as directed — the person delivering is the:

• A. Bailee
• B. Bailor
• C. Pledgee
• D. Surety

Q84. [Contract/Civil] A quasi-contract is based on the principle of:

• A. Consideration
• B. Unjust enrichment
• C. Free consent
• D. Privity

Q85. [Contract/Civil] ‘Consensus ad idem’ means:

• A. Meeting of minds on the same thing in the same sense
• B. A written contract
• C. A registered deed
• D. An implied term

Q86. [Legal GK] The offence replacing sedition under the BNS is contained in:

• A. Section 111
• B. Section 113
• C. Section 150
• D. Section 152

Q87. [Legal GK] Terrorist act as a general penal offence is a first introduced by the:

• A. BNSS
• B. BNS
• C. BSA
• D. UAPA only

Q88. [Legal GK] Under the new codes, statements of a rape survivor should preferably be recorded by:

• A. Any male officer
• B. A woman police officer/Magistrate, often audio-video
• C. The complainant
• D. A doctor only

Q89. [Legal GK] Mandatory forensic investigation under the BNSS applies to offences punishable with:

• A. 3 years+
• B. 5 years+
• C. 7 years+
• D. 10 years+

Q90. [Legal GK] The BNSS timeline to pronounce judgment after conclusion of arguments is generally:

• A. 7 days
• B. 30 days (extendable to 45)
• C. 90 days
• D. No limit

Q91. [Legal GK] Under the BNSS, a victim has a right to be heard at the stage of:

• A. Only trial
• B. Bail, plea bargaining and appeal (victim participation)
• C. Never
• D. Only after conviction

Q92. [Legal GK] Summons may now be served through electronic means — this is a reform under the:

• A. BNS
• B. BNSS
• C. BSA
• D. Consumer Act

Q93. [Legal GK] The definition of ‘document’ under the BSA now expressly includes:

• A. Only paper
• B. Electronic and digital records
• C. Only registered deeds
• D. Oral statements

Q94. [Legal GK] Community service and fine as punishment reflect a shift towards:

• A. Retributive justice only
• B. Reformative/restorative justice
• C. Abolition of courts
• D. Civil remedies

Q95. [Legal GK] A Special Public Prosecutor may be appointed for:

• A. Routine cases
• B. A particular case or class of cases
• C. Civil suits
• D. Only appeals

Q96. [General Studies] Bihar became a ‘dry state’ (total prohibition) in:

• A. 2015
• B. 2016
• C. 2018
• D. 2020

Q97. [General Studies] The head of the district judiciary in a district is the:

• A. District Magistrate
• B. District & Sessions Judge
• C. Superintendent of Police
• D. Collector

Q98. [General Studies] Alternative Dispute Resolution methods include:

• A. Only litigation
• B. Arbitration, mediation, conciliation and Lok Adalat
• C. Only appeals
• D. Only writs

Q99. [General Studies] The maxim ‘actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea’ means:

• A. An act alone makes one guilty
• B. An act is not guilty unless the mind is also guilty
• C. Ignorance of law is no excuse
• D. Hear the other side

Q100. [General Studies] ‘Res judicata’ prevents:

• A. A first suit
• B. Re-litigation of a matter already finally decided between the same parties
• C. Filing an appeal
• D. Cross-examination