Bihar APO 2026 — Full Mock 4 (100 Questions)

Q1. [BNS 2023] The BNS, 2023 contains a total of how many sections?

• A. 358
• B. 511
• C. 531
• D. 170

Q2. [BNS 2023] Waging war against the Government of India is an offence:

• A. Against property
• B. Against the State
• C. Against public tranquillity
• D. Against a woman

Q3. [BNS 2023] Counterfeiting Government stamps or currency is an offence relating to:

• A. Documents
• B. Coin, currency-notes and Government stamps
• C. Weights and measures
• D. Property marks

Q4. [BNS 2023] Bigamy (marrying again during the lifetime of a spouse) is an offence relating to:

• A. Property
• B. Marriage
• C. Public order
• D. The State

Q5. [BNS 2023] Fabricating false evidence is an offence against:

• A. Property
• B. Public justice
• C. A woman
• D. The State

Q6. [BNS 2023] Harbouring an offender to screen him from punishment is:

• A. No offence
• B. An offence against public justice
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Only a fine matter with consent

Q7. [BNS 2023] Adulteration of food or drink intended for sale is an offence affecting:

• A. Public health, safety and convenience
• B. Property
• C. The State
• D. Marriage

Q8. [BNS 2023] A negligent act likely to spread infection of a disease dangerous to life is an offence affecting:

• A. Property
• B. Public health/safety
• C. The State
• D. Public justice

Q9. [BNS 2023] Public nuisance is essentially an act causing:

• A. A private injury only
• B. Common injury/annoyance to the public
• C. A breach of contract
• D. Loss to one person

Q10. [BNS 2023] Cheating and dishonestly inducing delivery of property is a form of:

• A. Theft
• B. Aggravated cheating
• C. Extortion
• D. Criminal trespass

Q11. [BNS 2023] Criminal breach of trust by a public servant, banker or agent is:

• A. Ordinary CBT
• B. Aggravated CBT with higher punishment
• C. No offence
• D. A civil wrong

Q12. [BNS 2023] Attempt to commit suicide is now largely decriminalised due to:

• A. The BNS itself
• B. Section 115 of the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017
• C. The IT Act
• D. The DV Act

Q13. [BNS 2023] Giving false information to a public servant to cause him to use his lawful power to another’s injury is:

• A. No offence
• B. An offence against public justice
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Defamation

Q14. [BNS 2023] Escape from lawful custody is an offence against:

• A. Property
• B. Public justice
• C. A woman
• D. Marriage

Q15. [BNS 2023] Voluntarily causing hurt to deter a public servant from his duty is:

• A. No offence
• B. An aggravated offence
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Compoundable freely

Q16. [BNS 2023] Uttering words/gestures intended to insult the modesty of a woman is:

• A. No offence
• B. An offence against a woman
• C. A property offence
• D. Only defamation

Q17. [BNS 2023] Offences relating to weights and measures involve:

• A. Forgery
• B. Fraudulent use of false weights/measures
• C. Counterfeiting coin
• D. Public nuisance

Q18. [BNS 2023] Making preparation to commit dacoity is:

• A. No offence
• B. A punishable offence even at the preparation stage
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Only an attempt

Q19. [BNS 2023] Deterrence, retribution, prevention and reformation are the recognised:

• A. Types of evidence
• B. Theories/objectives of punishment
• C. Kinds of bail
• D. Modes of arrest

Q20. [BNS 2023] A person of unsound mind who, at the time of the act, is incapable of knowing its nature or that it is wrong is:

• A. Guilty
• B. Not liable (insanity defence)
• C. Liable for a fine
• D. A witness

Q21. [BNS 2023] An act done by consent (not intended to cause death) that causes harm is protected where consent is:

• A. Of a child under 12
• B. Free and by a person above 18 (within limits)
• C. Obtained by fraud
• D. Implied only

Q22. [BNS 2023] Criminal conspiracy to commit an offence punishable with death/life/2yr+ is punishable:

• A. Only if the offence is committed
• B. Even if no act is done in pursuance
• C. Only with a fine
• D. Only against public servants

Q23. [BNS 2023] Sedition-type conduct is now framed as endangering:

• A. Property
• B. Sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
• C. Public health
• D. Marriage

Q24. [BNS 2023] Culpable homicide by causing death of a person other than the one intended is covered by:

• A. Transferred malice
• B. Private defence
• C. Necessity
• D. Accident

Q25. [BNS 2023] Abetment of an offence by the public generally (instigating the public) is:

• A. No offence
• B. A punishable form of abetment
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Only defamation

Q26. [BNSS 2023] The BNSS, 2023 contains a total of how many sections?

• A. 484
• B. 511
• C. 531
• D. 358

Q27. [BNSS 2023] ‘Further investigation’ after a charge-sheet is:

• A. Not permitted
• B. Permitted by the investigating officer
• C. Only by the High Court
• D. Only by the accused

Q28. [BNSS 2023] A victim’s right to appeal against acquittal/inadequate compensation is:

• A. Not recognised
• B. Recognised under the BNSS
• C. Only for the State
• D. Only in civil courts

Q29. [BNSS 2023] Plea bargaining can be initiated by:

• A. The court suo motu
• B. The accused (application)
• C. The police
• D. The complainant only

Q30. [BNSS 2023] Summary trial procedure is meant to:

• A. Delay disposal
• B. Speed up disposal of petty offences with a concise record
• C. Try murder cases
• D. Handle appeals

Q31. [BNSS 2023] Power to transfer a criminal case between courts is exercised to ensure:

• A. Convenience of police
• B. A fair and impartial trial
• C. Lower court fees
• D. Speedy FIR

Q32. [BNSS 2023] Suspension, remission or commutation of a sentence is a power of the:

• A. Trial court only
• B. Appropriate Government (executive)
• C. Police
• D. Public Prosecutor

Q33. [BNSS 2023] The Probation of Offenders Act allows the court to:

• A. Enhance sentence
• B. Release certain offenders on probation of good conduct
• C. Deny bail
• D. Order forfeiture

Q34. [BNSS 2023] Default (statutory) bail arises when the investigation is not completed within:

• A. 24 hours
• B. The prescribed 60/90-day period
• C. One year
• D. Six months

Q35. [BNSS 2023] A charge must state:

• A. Only the section
• B. The offence, the law and particulars (time, place, person)
• C. Only the punishment
• D. Only the FIR number

Q36. [BNSS 2023] Witness protection under the BNSS is aimed at:

• A. Reducing court fees
• B. Ensuring safety and truthful testimony of witnesses
• C. Speeding up FIRs
• D. Avoiding trials

Q37. [BNSS 2023] Sanction to prosecute a public servant for acts in discharge of official duty is required under BNSS provisions corresponding to old:

• A. Section 197 CrPC
• B. Section 156 CrPC
• C. Section 173 CrPC
• D. Section 164 CrPC

Q38. [BNSS 2023] The court may order a person to give specimen signatures/handwriting under BNSS provisions corresponding to old:

• A. Section 311A CrPC
• B. Section 313 CrPC
• C. Section 161 CrPC
• D. Section 154 CrPC

Q39. [BNSS 2023] An inquiry is different from a trial in that an inquiry:

• A. Ends in conviction/acquittal
• B. Precedes trial and does not result in conviction
• C. Is conducted by police
• D. Is a civil proceeding

Q40. [BNSS 2023] The primary purpose of the BNSS timelines (investigation, trial, judgment) is:

• A. To increase pendency
• B. Speedy justice and reduced delay
• C. Higher fees
• D. Fewer appeals

Q41. [BSA 2023] The BSA, 2023 contains a total of how many sections?

• A. 167
• B. 170
• C. 173
• D. 180

Q42. [BSA 2023] A public document includes:

• A. A private sale deed
• B. Records of acts of public/official bodies
• C. A personal diary
• D. A private letter

Q43. [BSA 2023] A document 30 years old, produced from proper custody, carries a presumption that:

• A. It is forged
• B. Signatures/execution are genuine
• C. It is inadmissible
• D. It is a public document

Q44. [BSA 2023] Communications between spouses during marriage are:

• A. Always admissible
• B. Privileged (protected) with exceptions
• C. Public documents
• D. Conclusive proof

Q45. [BSA 2023] Professional communications between a client and legal adviser are:

• A. Freely disclosable
• B. Privileged
• C. Public records
• D. Hearsay

Q46. [BSA 2023] Entries in banker’s books are proved by:

• A. Producing the banker always
• B. Certified copies under the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act
• C. Oral evidence only
• D. The customer

Q47. [BSA 2023] The order of examination of a witness is:

• A. Cross, chief, re-examination
• B. Examination-in-chief, cross-examination, re-examination
• C. Re-examination first
• D. No fixed order

Q48. [BSA 2023] Re-examination of a witness is directed to:

• A. New matters freely
• B. Explaining matters arising out of cross-examination
• C. Impeaching credit
• D. Leading the witness

Q49. [BSA 2023] A person is a competent witness if he can:

• A. Only read and write
• B. Understand the questions and give rational answers
• C. Only speak English
• D. Prove ownership

Q50. [BSA 2023] ‘Proved’, ‘disproved’ and ‘not proved’ relate to:

• A. Kinds of documents
• B. The standard of proof/appreciation of evidence
• C. Modes of arrest
• D. Types of witnesses

Q51. [BSA 2023] Secondary evidence of a document’s contents is admissible when:

• A. The original is available
• B. The original is lost/destroyed/withheld by the opposite party
• C. Never
• D. Only for public documents

Q52. [BSA 2023] The general rule is that oral evidence must be:

• A. Hearsay
• B. Direct
• C. Documentary
• D. Circumstantial only

Q53. [Special Acts] Under s.37 NDPS Act, bail for commercial quantity requires the court to be satisfied that the accused is:

• A. Employed
• B. Not guilty and not likely to reoffend (twin conditions)
• C. A first-timer
• D. Willing to pay fine

Q54. [Special Acts] Under the PC Act, there is a legal presumption where a public servant accepts undue advantage — this is:

• A. Section 7
• B. Section 20
• C. Section 13
• D. Section 19

Q55. [Special Acts] Under POCSO, where the victim’s age is disputed, it is determined by:

• A. The accused
• B. The Special Court through medical/documentary evidence
• C. The police
• D. The complainant

Q56. [Special Acts] Under the JJ Act, adoption of a child is regulated with the involvement of:

• A. Only the family court
• B. CARA (Central Adoption Resource Authority)
• C. The police
• D. The Labour Department

Q57. [Special Acts] Under the PMLA, the offences that generate ‘proceeds of crime’ are listed as:

• A. Any offence
• B. Scheduled offences
• C. Only economic offences
• D. Only cognizable offences

Q58. [Special Acts] Under the DV Act, a ‘shared household’ entitles the aggrieved woman to:

• A. Ownership
• B. A right of residence
• C. Sale proceeds
• D. A pension

Q59. [Special Acts] Under the IT Act, adjudication of contraventions (up to a value) is done by the:

• A. Sessions Court
• B. Adjudicating Officer
• C. High Court
• D. Consumer Commission

Q60. [Special Acts] Under the SC/ST Act, an example of an atrocity is:

• A. A civil contract dispute
• B. Intentional insult/humiliation of an SC/ST member in public view
• C. A traffic offence
• D. A cheque bounce

Q61. [Special Acts] Under the Motor Vehicles Act, the compensation scheme for hit-and-run victims is:

• A. Not available
• B. A statutory scheme with fixed compensation
• C. Only through civil suit
• D. Only for insured vehicles

Q62. [Special Acts] Under s.143 of the NI Act, cheque-bounce cases are to be tried:

• A. As warrant cases
• B. Summarily for speedy disposal
• C. By the Sessions Court
• D. By a civil court

Q63. [Special Acts] Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, adulteration of food is dealt with by the:

• A. Consumer Commission
• B. Adjudicating Officer/Designated Officer under FSSAI framework
• C. Sessions Court
• D. Labour Court

Q64. [Special Acts] Under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, hunting of a Schedule I animal is:

• A. Permitted with licence
• B. A serious offence with stringent punishment
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Allowed for research freely

Q65. [Special Acts] Under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, causing unnecessary pain to an animal is:

• A. No offence
• B. A punishable offence
• C. A civil wrong only
• D. Allowed for owners

Q66. [Special Acts] The Mediation Act was enacted in India in the year:

• A. 2019
• B. 2021
• C. 2023
• D. 2024

Q67. [Special Acts] The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 primarily aims to:

• A. Increase penalties
• B. Decriminalise minor offences to ease doing business
• C. Abolish courts
• D. Create new crimes

Q68. [Special Acts] Under the NDPS Act, the safeguard requiring search before a Gazetted Officer or Magistrate is in:

• A. Section 42
• B. Section 50
• C. Section 37
• D. Section 27

Q69. [Special Acts] Under the POCSO Act, the trial should be conducted in a manner that is:

• A. Public and adversarial
• B. Child-friendly, avoiding re-traumatisation
• C. In open court always
• D. Fast but harsh

Q70. [Special Acts] Under the Arms Act, using a firearm to commit an offence attracts:

• A. Only a fine
• B. Enhanced/aggravated punishment
• C. No extra liability
• D. A civil penalty

Q71. [Constitution] The Preamble declares India to be a:

• A. Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
• B. Confederation
• C. Union of monarchies
• D. Presidential democracy

Q72. [Constitution] Citizenship provisions are contained in:

• A. Articles 5-11
• B. Articles 12-35
• C. Articles 36-51
• D. Articles 52-78

Q73. [Constitution] The presiding officer of the Lok Sabha is the:

• A. Chairman
• B. Speaker
• C. Deputy Chairman
• D. Leader of the House

Q74. [Constitution] A Money Bill is certified by the:

• A. President
• B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
• C. Rajya Sabha Chairman
• D. Finance Minister

Q75. [Constitution] The power to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session vests in the:

• A. Prime Minister
• B. President (Article 123)
• C. Speaker
• D. Attorney General

Q76. [Constitution] Anti-defection provisions are contained in the:

• A. Ninth Schedule
• B. Tenth Schedule
• C. Seventh Schedule
• D. Fifth Schedule

Q77. [Constitution] The Comptroller and Auditor-General is appointed under:

• A. Article 148
• B. Article 76
• C. Article 165
• D. Article 324

Q78. [Constitution] The Attorney-General for India is appointed under:

• A. Article 76
• B. Article 148
• C. Article 165
• D. Article 324

Q79. [Constitution] The Advocate-General of a State is appointed under:

• A. Article 76
• B. Article 165
• C. Article 148
• D. Article 324

Q80. [Constitution] Judges of the higher judiciary are appointed through the:

• A. Executive alone
• B. Collegium system (as evolved by SC judgments)
• C. Parliament
• D. Public Service Commission

Q81. [Contract/Civil] A contingent contract is one to do or not do something if a collateral event:

• A. Certainly happens
• B. Does or does not happen
• C. Is a past fact
• D. Is impossible

Q82. [Contract/Civil] A wagering agreement is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void
• C. Voidable
• D. Illegal and punishable everywhere

Q83. [Contract/Civil] An agreement with a minor is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void ab initio
• C. Voidable
• D. Enforceable against the minor

Q84. [Contract/Civil] Coercion under the Contract Act involves:

• A. Improper influence over a person in a fiduciary relation
• B. Committing/threatening an act forbidden by penal law to obtain consent
• C. A false statement
• D. A mistake

Q85. [Contract/Civil] Undue influence arises where a party is in a position to:

• A. Bargain equally
• B. Dominate the will of the other and uses it to gain an unfair advantage
• C. Perform the contract
• D. Rescind freely

Q86. [Legal GK] The three new criminal codes replaced the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act with effect from:

• A. 1 April 2024
• B. 1 July 2024
• C. 15 August 2024
• D. 26 January 2025

Q87. [Legal GK] ‘e-FIR’ and ‘Zero FIR’ are features strengthened by the:

• A. BNS
• B. BNSS
• C. BSA
• D. IT Act

Q88. [Legal GK] Virtual/electronic conduct of proceedings and evidence is enabled across the new codes primarily to:

• A. Increase adjournments
• B. Modernise and speed up justice
• C. Reduce transparency
• D. Limit appeals

Q89. [Legal GK] The maximum punishment of community service is intended for:

• A. Heinous offences
• B. Petty offences
• C. Economic offences only
• D. Terror offences

Q90. [Legal GK] Under the new codes, handcuffing is:

• A. Freely allowed
• B. Permitted in limited categories (e.g., habitual/serious offenders)
• C. Banned entirely
• D. Only for women

Q91. [Legal GK] A Directorate/officer that scientifically examines electronic evidence is the:

• A. Examiner of Electronic Evidence
• B. Registrar
• C. Public Prosecutor
• D. Protection Officer

Q92. [Legal GK] The BNSS prescribes that a charge-sheet in grave cases be filed within:

• A. 30 days
• B. 60 days
• C. 90 days (extendable per law)
• D. No limit

Q93. [Legal GK] Restorative provisions for victims include compensation administered through:

• A. Court fees
• B. Victim Compensation Schemes
• C. Higher fines to the State
• D. Longer sentences

Q94. [Legal GK] The doctrine that penal statutes are construed strictly benefits the:

• A. State
• B. Accused
• C. Complainant
• D. Court

Q95. [Legal GK] ‘Bail is the rule, jail is the exception’ is a principle affirmed in:

• A. State of Rajasthan v. Balchand
• B. Kesavananda Bharati
• C. ADM Jabalpur
• D. Golaknath

Q96. [General Studies] The maxim ‘ubi jus ibi remedium’ means:

• A. Where there is a right, there is a remedy
• B. Let the buyer beware
• C. No one is above the law
• D. Hear the other side

Q97. [General Studies] ‘Ratio decidendi’ of a judgment is:

• A. An incidental observation
• B. The binding legal reason for the decision
• C. The facts
• D. The dissent

Q98. [General Studies] The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) was constituted under the:

• A. CPC
• B. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
• C. Constitution directly
• D. Advocates Act

Q99. [General Studies] Prohibition in Bihar is administered by the:

• A. Home Department only
• B. Prohibition, Excise and Registration Department
• C. Finance Department
• D. Panchayati Raj Department

Q100. [General Studies] ‘Stare decisis’ refers to:

• A. Changing precedent freely
• B. Standing by decided cases (binding precedent)
• C. Trial in absentia
• D. A civil decree