Bihar APO 2026 — Full Mock 5 (100 Questions)

Q1. [BNS 2023] Promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, etc., is an offence:

• A. Against property
• B. Against public tranquillity/harmony
• C. Against a woman
• D. Against the State only

Q2. [BNS 2023] Gang rape attracts, under the BNS:

• A. Simple imprisonment
• B. Rigorous punishment (minimum 20 years, up to life)
• C. Only a fine
• D. Community service

Q3. [BNS 2023] House-breaking by night is treated as:

• A. A minor offence
• B. An aggravated form of house-trespass
• C. A civil wrong
• D. No offence

Q4. [BNS 2023] Theft committed by a clerk or servant of property in the master’s possession is:

• A. Simple theft
• B. Aggravated theft
• C. No offence
• D. A civil wrong

Q5. [BNS 2023] Assault or use of criminal force to a woman with intent to disrobe is:

• A. No offence
• B. A specific aggravated offence
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Only defamation

Q6. [BNS 2023] A repeat offender (previous conviction) may be:

• A. Given a lighter sentence
• B. Given enhanced punishment
• C. Discharged
• D. Only fined

Q7. [BNS 2023] Mere preparation to commit an offence is generally:

• A. Punishable for all offences
• B. Not punishable except for specified offences (e.g., dacoity, waging war)
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Always an attempt

Q8. [BNS 2023] The stages in the commission of a crime are:

• A. Only intention and act
• B. Intention, preparation, attempt and commission
• C. Only attempt
• D. Only motive

Q9. [BNS 2023] Defamation is NOT committed where the imputation is:

• A. False and malicious
• B. True and made for the public good
• C. Anonymous
• D. Repeated

Q10. [BNS 2023] Criminal conspiracy can be inferred from:

• A. A written agreement only
• B. Circumstances and conduct of the parties
• C. A single person’s act
• D. A civil contract

Q11. [BNS 2023] ‘Abetment’ outside India of an offence committed in India is:

• A. Not punishable
• B. Punishable in India
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Only extraditable

Q12. [BNS 2023] Sale of obscene objects to a young person (minor) is:

• A. No offence
• B. An aggravated offence
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Allowed with consent

Q13. [BNS 2023] Making a false document is an essential ingredient of:

• A. Theft
• B. Forgery
• C. Extortion
• D. Criminal trespass

Q14. [BNS 2023] ‘Grievous hurt’ includes:

• A. A minor bruise
• B. Fracture/dislocation of a bone or tooth, permanent disfiguration, etc.
• C. A slap
• D. Verbal abuse

Q15. [BNS 2023] A public servant disobeying a legal direction with intent to cause injury is:

• A. No offence
• B. An offence relating to public servants
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Defamation

Q16. [BNS 2023] Personation at an election is an offence:

• A. Against property
• B. Relating to elections
• C. Against a woman
• D. Against the State

Q17. [BNS 2023] ‘Common object’ is associated with:

• A. Section 34 (common intention)
• B. An unlawful assembly (constructive liability)
• C. Criminal conspiracy
• D. Abetment

Q18. [BNS 2023] The difference between ‘common intention’ and ‘common object’ includes that common object:

• A. Needs a prior meeting of minds
• B. Requires five or more persons in an unlawful assembly
• C. Applies to two persons
• D. Is a civil concept

Q19. [BNS 2023] Voluntarily causing hurt on grave and sudden provocation is:

• A. Aggravated
• B. Mitigated (lesser punishment)
• C. No offence
• D. A civil wrong

Q20. [BNS 2023] Wrongfully confining a person for three or more days is:

• A. Simple confinement
• B. An aggravated form of wrongful confinement
• C. No offence
• D. A civil wrong

Q21. [BNS 2023] Criminal trespass becomes ‘house-trespass’ when committed in:

• A. Any open field
• B. A building, tent or vessel used as a human dwelling/worship/property
• C. A public road
• D. A vehicle in motion

Q22. [BNS 2023] Dishonestly inducing a person to deliver property is punishable as:

• A. Theft
• B. Cheating
• C. Robbery
• D. Mischief

Q23. [BNS 2023] Mischief involves causing:

• A. A false document
• B. Wrongful loss/damage to property
• C. Hurt to a person
• D. Wrongful restraint

Q24. [BNS 2023] The BNS classifies punishment for attempt (where no specific provision) generally as:

• A. Equal to the offence
• B. Up to one-half of the longest term (or as specified)
• C. Only a fine
• D. No punishment

Q25. [BNS 2023] Kidnapping a minor from lawful guardianship requires the minor to be under (for a girl):

• A. 16 years
• B. 18 years
• C. 21 years
• D. 12 years

Q26. [BNSS 2023] On receiving a private complaint, the Magistrate first:

• A. Frames a charge
• B. Examines the complainant on oath
• C. Convicts the accused
• D. Grants bail

Q27. [BNSS 2023] If no sufficient ground to proceed exists on a complaint, the Magistrate may:

• A. Convict
• B. Dismiss the complaint
• C. Frame a charge
• D. Grant compensation

Q28. [BNSS 2023] Issuing ‘process’ (summons/warrant) to the accused happens:

• A. Before examining the complainant
• B. After the Magistrate finds sufficient ground to proceed
• C. After conviction
• D. Only in warrant cases

Q29. [BNSS 2023] The bar of ‘autrefois acquit / autrefois convict’ (no second trial for the same offence) reflects old:

• A. Section 300 CrPC
• B. Section 197 CrPC
• C. Section 156 CrPC
• D. Section 173 CrPC

Q30. [BNSS 2023] A death sentence passed by a Sessions Court must be:

• A. Executed immediately
• B. Confirmed by the High Court
• C. Reviewed by the police
• D. Appealed by the State only

Q31. [BNSS 2023] In the Arnesh Kumar guidelines, arrest for an offence punishable up to 7 years should be:

• A. Automatic
• B. Not automatic; based on necessity with reasons recorded
• C. Only by the SP
• D. Prohibited

Q32. [BNSS 2023] Lalita Kumari v. Govt of U.P. held that registration of an FIR on a cognizable offence is:

• A. Discretionary
• B. Mandatory (preliminary inquiry only in limited categories)
• C. Only after inquiry
• D. Only by a Magistrate

Q33. [BNSS 2023] The DK Basu guidelines relate to:

• A. Bail conditions
• B. Safeguards on arrest and detention
• C. Framing of charge
• D. Plea bargaining

Q34. [BNSS 2023] Satender Kumar Antil v. CBI primarily concerns:

• A. Death penalty
• B. Guidelines on bail and unnecessary arrests
• C. Evidence law
• D. Juvenile justice

Q35. [BNSS 2023] Joinder of charges permits trying together:

• A. Unconnected offences
• B. Offences of the same kind or forming the same transaction (within limits)
• C. Only one offence ever
• D. Civil and criminal claims

Q36. [BNSS 2023] A complaint may be withdrawn/compounded for compoundable offences:

• A. Never
• B. As per the compounding provisions (some with court permission)
• C. Only by the police
• D. Only after conviction

Q37. [BNSS 2023] An appeal from a conviction by a Court of Session lies to the:

• A. Magistrate
• B. High Court
• C. Supreme Court directly
• D. Executive Magistrate

Q38. [BNSS 2023] ‘Anticipatory bail’ means bail:

• A. After conviction
• B. In anticipation of arrest for a non-bailable offence
• C. For a bailable offence
• D. For a witness

Q39. [BNSS 2023] A reference to the High Court is made by a subordinate court when:

• A. It wants a transfer
• B. A question as to the validity of a law/provision arises
• C. It grants bail
• D. It frames a charge

Q40. [BNSS 2023] The primary aim of the D.K. Basu / Arnesh Kumar jurisprudence is to protect:

• A. Police powers
• B. Personal liberty against arbitrary arrest
• C. Court fees
• D. Prosecution success

Q41. [BSA 2023] In a case resting on circumstantial evidence, the chain of circumstances must be:

• A. Partly proved
• B. Complete and consistent only with guilt, excluding every hypothesis of innocence
• C. Based on suspicion
• D. Corroborated by the accused

Q42. [BSA 2023] The ‘last seen together’ theory is a species of:

• A. Direct evidence
• B. Circumstantial evidence
• C. Hearsay
• D. Documentary evidence

Q43. [BSA 2023] A confession by one accused affecting himself and a co-accused may be:

• A. Substantive evidence against the co-accused
• B. Taken into consideration against the co-accused (weak, needs corroboration)
• C. Conclusive
• D. Irrelevant

Q44. [BSA 2023] A retracted confession:

• A. Cannot be used at all
• B. May be relied on if voluntary, true and corroborated
• C. Is conclusive
• D. Is a public document

Q45. [BSA 2023] An extra-judicial confession is one made:

• A. Before a Magistrate
• B. To a person other than a Magistrate/court
• C. To the police
• D. In writing only

Q46. [BSA 2023] When the court has to form an opinion as to a foreign law/science/art, the opinion of an expert is:

• A. Irrelevant
• B. Relevant
• C. Conclusive
• D. Hearsay

Q47. [BSA 2023] Opinion as to relationship (by conduct/family) is relevant when given by a person who:

• A. Is an outsider
• B. Has special means of knowledge (family member)
• C. Is an expert only
• D. Is a police officer

Q48. [BSA 2023] A previous judgment is relevant to:

• A. Reopen the merits
• B. Show that a court had jurisdiction / bar a second suit (res judicata/autrefois)
• C. Impeach a witness
• D. Refresh memory

Q49. [BSA 2023] Facts which are the occasion, cause or effect of facts in issue are:

• A. Irrelevant
• B. Relevant
• C. Conclusive
• D. Privileged

Q50. [BSA 2023] Motive assumes greater importance in a case based on:

• A. Direct eyewitnesses
• B. Circumstantial evidence
• C. Documentary evidence
• D. Admissions

Q51. [BSA 2023] ‘Facts in issue’ are those:

• A. Admitted by both sides
• B. From which the existence/non-existence of a right or liability necessarily follows
• C. Irrelevant
• D. Only documentary

Q52. [BSA 2023] The best evidence rule requires:

• A. Any evidence
• B. The best available evidence (e.g., primary over secondary)
• C. Only oral evidence
• D. Only expert evidence

Q53. [Special Acts] Under s.27 of the NDPS Act, consumption of a narcotic drug attracts:

• A. Death
• B. Comparatively lesser punishment (with treatment focus)
• C. Life imprisonment
• D. No punishment

Q54. [Special Acts] Under POCSO, ‘aggravated penetrative sexual assault’ includes an offence by a:

• A. Stranger only
• B. Person in a position of trust/authority (police, staff, relative)
• C. Minor only
• D. Foreigner

Q55. [Special Acts] Under the PC Act, possession of assets disproportionate to known sources of income is:

• A. No offence
• B. Criminal misconduct
• C. A civil matter
• D. A tax issue only

Q56. [Special Acts] Under the JJ Act, a child in conflict with law may be kept in an:

• A. Adult jail
• B. Observation Home / Special Home
• C. Police lock-up
• D. Remand prison

Q57. [Special Acts] Under s.45 of the PMLA, the twin conditions for bail were:

• A. Never valid
• B. Struck down and later revived by amendment/SC
• C. Only for women
• D. Automatic

Q58. [Special Acts] Under the DV Act, monetary relief can include:

• A. Only rent
• B. Loss of earnings, medical expenses and maintenance
• C. A criminal fine
• D. Court fees

Q59. [Special Acts] Under the IT Act, capturing/publishing images of a private area of a person violating privacy is punishable under:

• A. Section 66E
• B. Section 67
• C. Section 69
• D. Section 43

Q60. [Special Acts] Under the SC/ST Act, a public servant (non-SC/ST) wilfully neglecting his duties under the Act is:

• A. Not liable
• B. Liable to punishment (s.4)
• C. Only transferred
• D. Given a warning

Q61. [Special Acts] Under the Motor Vehicles Act, third-party insurance is:

• A. Optional
• B. Compulsory
• C. Only for commercial vehicles
• D. Only for two-wheelers

Q62. [Special Acts] Under s.138/s.147 of the NI Act, the offence is:

• A. Non-compoundable
• B. Compoundable
• C. Only bailable in the HC
• D. Triable by Sessions

Q63. [Special Acts] Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a new concept introduced was:

• A. Product liability
• B. Adverse possession
• C. Specific performance
• D. Anticipatory bail

Q64. [Special Acts] The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act sets the minimum marriage age for a female at:

• A. 16
• B. 18
• C. 21
• D. 15

Q65. [Special Acts] Under the Legal Metrology Act, use of a non-standard weight/measure in trade is:

• A. No offence
• B. A punishable offence
• C. A civil wrong
• D. Allowed with a licence

Q66. [Special Acts] Under the Copyright Act, infringement of copyright is:

• A. Only a civil wrong
• B. Both a civil wrong and a criminal offence
• C. Only criminal
• D. Not actionable

Q67. [Special Acts] Under the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, being found in a state of drunkenness in public is:

• A. No offence
• B. A punishable offence
• C. A civil matter
• D. Allowed

Q68. [Special Acts] Under the NDPS Act, an offence involving commercial quantity is:

• A. Bailable
• B. Non-bailable with stringent s.37 conditions
• C. Compoundable
• D. Triable summarily

Q69. [Special Acts] Under POCSO, the trial must ordinarily be completed within:

• A. 6 months
• B. 1 year from taking cognizance
• C. 2 years
• D. No limit

Q70. [Special Acts] Under the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, the focus of punishment is on:

• A. The victim
• B. Exploiters, brothel-keepers and traffickers
• C. Bystanders
• D. Police

Q71. [Constitution] Untouchability is abolished by:

• A. Article 15
• B. Article 16
• C. Article 17
• D. Article 18

Q72. [Constitution] Reservation in public employment for backward classes is enabled by:

• A. Article 14
• B. Article 15(4)
• C. Article 16(4)
• D. Article 19

Q73. [Constitution] Safeguards against preventive detention are in:

• A. Article 20
• B. Article 21
• C. Article 22
• D. Article 19

Q74. [Constitution] A Uniform Civil Code is envisaged as a Directive Principle under:

• A. Article 40
• B. Article 44
• C. Article 48A
• D. Article 51

Q75. [Constitution] The distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States is under:

• A. Article 245-246 and the Seventh Schedule
• B. Article 356
• C. Article 368
• D. Article 32

Q76. [Constitution] Criminal law and criminal procedure fall in the:

• A. Union List
• B. State List
• C. Concurrent List
• D. Residuary powers

Q77. [Constitution] Which is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A?

• A. To pay taxes
• B. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
• C. To vote
• D. To hold property

Q78. [Constitution] The independence of the judiciary is secured by features such as:

• A. Executive control of salaries
• B. Security of tenure and fixed service conditions of judges
• C. Annual elections of judges
• D. Ministerial transfers

Q79. [Constitution] The right to a speedy trial has been read into:

• A. Article 19
• B. Article 21
• C. Article 25
• D. Article 300A

Q80. [Constitution] Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar is a landmark on:

• A. Reservation
• B. Speedy trial and legal aid for undertrials
• C. Property rights
• D. Federalism

Q81. [Contract/Civil] Novation of a contract means:

• A. Breach
• B. Substitution of a new contract for the old by agreement
• C. Performance
• D. Rescission by one party

Q82. [Contract/Civil] Damages for breach of contract follow the rule in:

• A. Rylands v. Fletcher
• B. Hadley v. Baxendale
• C. Donoghue v. Stevenson
• D. Carlill v. Carbolic

Q83. [Contract/Civil] ‘Quantum meruit’ allows a party to claim:

• A. Full contract price always
• B. Reasonable remuneration for work done
• C. Punitive damages
• D. Specific performance

Q84. [Contract/Civil] A contract is discharged by ‘accord and satisfaction’ which means:

• A. Breach
• B. A new agreement accepted in satisfaction of the original obligation
• C. Frustration
• D. Novation of parties

Q85. [Contract/Civil] Liquidated damages are:

• A. Unascertained
• B. A genuine pre-estimate of loss stated in the contract
• C. Always penal
• D. Punitive

Q86. [Legal GK] Arnesh Kumar guidelines arose from a case originating in:

• A. Uttar Pradesh
• B. Bihar
• C. Delhi
• D. Maharashtra

Q87. [Legal GK] Hussainara Khatoon, a landmark on undertrials, also arose from:

• A. Bihar
• B. Punjab
• C. Kerala
• D. Gujarat

Q88. [Legal GK] The three new criminal codes were prepared to replace laws dating back to the:

• A. 1950s
• B. Colonial era (1860/1898/1872)
• C. 1980s
• D. 2000s

Q89. [Legal GK] ‘Zero FIR’ primarily benefits:

• A. The police
• B. Victims who can report anywhere without jurisdictional delay
• C. The State
• D. Lawyers

Q90. [Legal GK] Mandatory videography/forensics for grave crimes is intended to improve:

• A. Court fees
• B. Conviction quality and reduce fabrication
• C. Adjournments
• D. Police discretion

Q91. [Legal GK] A Public Prosecutor’s duty is to:

• A. Secure conviction at any cost
• B. Act fairly and assist the court in reaching the truth
• C. Represent the victim only
• D. Defend the accused

Q92. [Legal GK] Plea bargaining benefits the system by:

• A. Increasing pendency
• B. Reducing pendency via mutually satisfactory disposition
• C. Removing appeals
• D. Abolishing sentencing

Q93. [Legal GK] The presumption of innocence means the burden of proof lies on the:

• A. Accused
• B. Prosecution
• C. Court
• D. Witness

Q94. [Legal GK] ‘Beyond reasonable doubt’ is the standard of proof in:

• A. Civil cases
• B. Criminal cases
• C. Writ petitions
• D. Arbitration

Q95. [Legal GK] The BNSS emphasis on timelines is designed to counter:

• A. Speedy trials
• B. Chronic delay and pendency
• C. Bail
• D. Appeals

Q96. [General Studies] ‘Audi alteram partem’ and ‘nemo judex in causa sua’ are the two pillars of:

• A. Res judicata
• B. Natural justice
• C. Double jeopardy
• D. Estoppel

Q97. [General Studies] The standard of proof ‘preponderance of probabilities’ applies to:

• A. Criminal trials
• B. Civil proceedings
• C. Bail only
• D. Death sentences

Q98. [General Studies] The maxim ‘falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus’ is:

• A. A binding rule in India
• B. Not a rule of law in India (evidence is sifted)
• C. Applied to all witnesses
• D. Only for experts

Q99. [General Studies] Free legal aid in Bihar is coordinated by the:

• A. Bihar State Legal Services Authority
• B. Election Commission
• C. State Excise Dept
• D. Public Service Commission

Q100. [General Studies] The doctrine ‘volenti non fit injuria’ means:

• A. No injury to a willing person (consent defence)
• B. Ignorance of law is no excuse
• C. Let the buyer beware
• D. Hear the other side