Bihar HJS (District Judge) — Screening/Prelims Pattern Mock 1 (100 Questions)

Q1. [CPC] A decree is defined under which section of the CPC?

• A. Section 2(2)
• B. Section 2(9)
• C. Section 2(14)
• D. Section 11

Q2. [CPC] ‘Judgment’ is defined under the CPC in:

• A. Section 2(2)
• B. Section 2(9)
• C. Section 2(14)
• D. Section 33

Q3. [CPC] The principle of res judicata is contained in:

• A. Section 10
• B. Section 11
• C. Section 9
• D. Order II Rule 2

Q4. [CPC] Res sub judice (stay of a subsequently instituted suit) is in:

• A. Section 9
• B. Section 10
• C. Section 11
• D. Section 151

Q5. [CPC] The inherent powers of a civil court are preserved by:

• A. Section 148
• B. Section 151
• C. Section 152
• D. Section 47

Q6. [CPC] Temporary injunctions are governed by:

• A. Order 38
• B. Order 39
• C. Order 40
• D. Order 21

Q7. [CPC] Execution of decrees is dealt with under:

• A. Order 20
• B. Order 21
• C. Order 22
• D. Order 23

Q8. [CPC] Rejection of a plaint is provided under:

• A. Order 6 Rule 17
• B. Order 7 Rule 11
• C. Order 8 Rule 1
• D. Order 9 Rule 13

Q9. [CPC] Setting aside an ex parte decree is under:

• A. Order 9 Rule 7
• B. Order 9 Rule 13
• C. Order 8 Rule 10
• D. Order 17

Q10. [CPC] Amendment of pleadings is under:

• A. Order 6 Rule 17
• B. Order 7 Rule 1
• C. Order 8 Rule 9
• D. Order 1 Rule 10

Q11. [CPC] A suit is instituted by the presentation of a:

• A. Written statement
• B. Plaint
• C. Decree
• D. Memo of appeal

Q12. [CPC] The place of suing (jurisdiction) for immovable property is governed by:

• A. Section 15
• B. Section 16
• C. Section 20
• D. Section 9

Q13. [CPC] A second appeal to the High Court lies only on a:

• A. Question of fact
• B. Substantial question of law
• C. Mixed question
• D. New evidence

Q14. [CPC] Review of a judgment is provided under:

• A. Section 114 / Order 47
• B. Section 96
• C. Section 100
• D. Order 41

Q15. [BSA/Evidence] Facts forming part of the same transaction (res gestae) are relevant — old:

• A. Section 6
• B. Section 8
• C. Section 45
• D. Section 32

Q16. [BSA/Evidence] Motive, preparation and conduct are relevant — old:

• A. Section 6
• B. Section 7
• C. Section 8
• D. Section 9

Q17. [BSA/Evidence] A confession to a police officer is:

• A. Admissible
• B. Inadmissible
• C. Conclusive
• D. Admissible with sanction

Q18. [BSA/Evidence] How much of information leading to discovery is admissible — old:

• A. Section 24
• B. Section 25
• C. Section 27
• D. Section 30

Q19. [BSA/Evidence] Dying declaration is relevant — BSA:

• A. Section 26
• B. Section 32
• C. Section 6
• D. Section 45

Q20. [BSA/Evidence] Expert opinion is relevant — BSA:

• A. Section 39
• B. Section 45
• C. Section 60
• D. Section 101

Q21. [BSA/Evidence] Burden of proof — who must prove the existence of facts he asserts — BSA:

• A. Section 101/old 101
• B. Section 104
• C. Section 105
• D. Section 106

Q22. [BSA/Evidence] Estoppel is contained in — old:

• A. Section 115
• B. Section 116
• C. Section 117
• D. Section 118

Q23. [BSA/Evidence] Leading questions may be asked in:

• A. Examination-in-chief
• B. Cross-examination
• C. Re-examination
• D. Never

Q24. [BSA/Evidence] Admissibility of electronic records — BSA:

• A. Sections 61-63
• B. Section 65B only
• C. Section 45
• D. Section 32

Q25. [BSA/Evidence] A presumption of legitimacy of a child born in wedlock is:

• A. A may presume
• B. Conclusive unless non-access shown
• C. Irrelevant
• D. Only for property

Q26. [BSA/Evidence] Number of witnesses to prove a fact:

• A. Two
• B. Three
• C. No particular number
• D. Five

Q27. [Criminal Law] Culpable homicide is defined — BNS:

• A. Section 99
• B. Section 100
• C. Section 101
• D. Section 103

Q28. [Criminal Law] Murder is defined — BNS:

• A. Section 100
• B. Section 101
• C. Section 103
• D. Section 105

Q29. [Criminal Law] Common intention — BNS:

• A. Section 3(5)
• B. Section 61
• C. Section 190
• D. Section 111

Q30. [Criminal Law] Criminal conspiracy — BNS:

• A. Section 61
• B. Section 62
• C. Section 111
• D. Section 120

Q31. [Criminal Law] Cheating — BNS:

• A. Section 316
• B. Section 318
• C. Section 320
• D. Section 322

Q32. [Criminal Law] Right of private defence extending to death (body) — BNS:

• A. Section 34
• B. Section 35
• C. Section 38
• D. Section 44

Q33. [Criminal Law] FIR / information in a cognizable offence — BNSS:

• A. Section 154
• B. Section 173
• C. Section 175
• D. Section 176

Q34. [Criminal Law] Police custody scheme (15 days, in parts) — BNSS:

• A. Section 167
• B. Section 187
• C. Section 190
• D. Section 209

Q35. [Criminal Law] Anticipatory bail — BNSS:

• A. Section 437
• B. Section 438
• C. Section 480
• D. Section 482

Q36. [Criminal Law] Regular bail in non-bailable offences — BNSS:

• A. Section 437
• B. Section 480
• C. Section 483
• D. Section 439

Q37. [Criminal Law] Examination of the accused by the court — old CrPC:

• A. Section 161
• B. Section 164
• C. Section 313
• D. Section 173

Q38. [Criminal Law] Confession/statement recorded by a Magistrate — BNSS:

• A. Section 164
• B. Section 180
• C. Section 183
• D. Section 190

Q39. [Criminal Law] The new criminal codes came into force on:

• A. 15 Aug 2023
• B. 1 Jul 2024
• C. 26 Jan 2024
• D. 1 Apr 2024

Q40. [Criminal Law] Grave and sudden provocation reduces murder to culpable homicide as an:

• A. Aggravation
• B. Exception
• C. Abetment
• D. Attempt

Q41. [Constitution] Right to constitutional remedies (SC writs):

• A. Article 32
• B. Article 226
• C. Article 136
• D. Article 143

Q42. [Constitution] High Court writ jurisdiction:

• A. Article 32
• B. Article 226
• C. Article 227
• D. Article 235

Q43. [Constitution] Control over subordinate judiciary vests in the High Court under:

• A. Article 233
• B. Article 234
• C. Article 235
• D. Article 236

Q44. [Constitution] Direct recruitment as District Judge requires practice of:

• A. 5 years
• B. 7 years
• C. 10 years
• D. 3 years

Q45. [Constitution] Protection of life and personal liberty:

• A. Article 19
• B. Article 20
• C. Article 21
• D. Article 22

Q46. [Constitution] Protection against self-incrimination:

• A. Article 20(1)
• B. Article 20(2)
• C. Article 20(3)
• D. Article 22

Q47. [Constitution] Equality before law:

• A. Article 13
• B. Article 14
• C. Article 15
• D. Article 16

Q48. [Constitution] Abolition of untouchability:

• A. Article 15
• B. Article 16
• C. Article 17
• D. Article 18

Q49. [Constitution] Amendment of the Constitution:

• A. Article 356
• B. Article 368
• C. Article 370
• D. Article 352

Q50. [Constitution] Basic structure doctrine originated in:

• A. Golaknath
• B. Kesavananda Bharati
• C. Minerva Mills
• D. Maneka Gandhi

Q51. [Constitution] Free legal aid is a Directive Principle under:

• A. Article 39A
• B. Article 44
• C. Article 50
• D. Article 48A

Q52. [Constitution] Separation of judiciary from executive — DPSP:

• A. Article 40
• B. Article 44
• C. Article 50
• D. Article 51

Q53. [Civil Law] Consideration is defined in the Contract Act under:

• A. Section 2(d)
• B. Section 2(e)
• C. Section 10
• D. Section 25

Q54. [Civil Law] An agreement without consideration is generally:

• A. Valid
• B. Void
• C. Voidable
• D. Illegal

Q55. [Civil Law] Frustration/supervening impossibility — ICA:

• A. Section 39
• B. Section 56
• C. Section 65
• D. Section 73

Q56. [Civil Law] Damages for breach of contract — ICA:

• A. Section 73
• B. Section 74
• C. Section 75
• D. Section 39

Q57. [Civil Law] A minor’s agreement is:

• A. Valid
• B. Voidable
• C. Void ab initio
• D. Enforceable

Q58. [Civil Law] Doctrine of part performance — TPA:

• A. Section 41
• B. Section 52
• C. Section 53A
• D. Section 54

Q59. [Civil Law] Doctrine of lis pendens — TPA:

• A. Section 52
• B. Section 53
• C. Section 53A
• D. Section 54

Q60. [Civil Law] ‘Sale’ of immovable property Rs.100+ requires:

• A. Oral agreement
• B. Registered instrument
• C. Delivery only
• D. Promissory note

Q61. [Civil Law] Specific performance is governed by the:

• A. Contract Act
• B. Specific Relief Act 1963
• C. TPA
• D. CPC

Q62. [Civil Law] Under the Sale of Goods Act, property in specific goods passes when:

• A. On delivery always
• B. Parties intend it to pass
• C. On payment only
• D. On registration

Q63. [Civil Law] Under the Indian Partnership Act, an unregistered firm cannot:

• A. Exist
• B. Sue to enforce a contractual right
• C. Have partners
• D. Make profit

Q64. [Civil Law] A contract of guarantee involves:

• A. Two parties
• B. Three parties (creditor, principal debtor, surety)
• C. One party
• D. Only a surety

Q65. [Special Laws] A suit for possession based on title (Limitation Act) must be filed within:

• A. 3 years
• B. 12 years
• C. 30 years
• D. 6 years

Q66. [Special Laws] Section 5 of the Limitation Act (condonation of delay) applies to:

• A. Suits
• B. Appeals and applications
• C. Only writ petitions
• D. Execution only

Q67. [Special Laws] Complaint under s.138 NI Act must be filed within:

• A. 15 days
• B. One month (30 days)
• C. 45 days
• D. 90 days

Q68. [Special Laws] Presumption that a cheque was issued for a debt — NI Act:

• A. Section 118
• B. Section 138
• C. Section 139
• D. Section 142

Q69. [Special Laws] An arbitral award can be set aside under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act:

• A. Section 11
• B. Section 34
• C. Section 9
• D. Section 17

Q70. [Special Laws] Interim measures by a court under the Arbitration Act:

• A. Section 9
• B. Section 11
• C. Section 34
• D. Section 36

Q71. [Special Laws] Appointment of an arbitrator by the court — Arbitration Act:

• A. Section 8
• B. Section 9
• C. Section 11
• D. Section 16

Q72. [Special Laws] Under the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016, consumption of liquor is:

• A. Permitted with licence
• B. A punishable offence
• C. A civil matter
• D. Allowed for tourists

Q73. [English/GK] Choose the correctly spelt word:

• A. Maintenance
• B. Maintainance
• C. Maintenence
• D. Maintainence

Q74. [English/GK] The synonym of ‘ameliorate’ is:

• A. Worsen
• B. Improve
• C. Ignore
• D. Delay

Q75. [English/GK] ‘Ratio decidendi’ means:

• A. An obiter remark
• B. The binding reason for a decision
• C. The facts
• D. The dissent

Q76. [English/GK] ‘Obiter dicta’ are:

• A. Binding
• B. Persuasive observations not essential to the decision
• C. Facts
• D. Orders

Q77. [English/GK] The Patna High Court was established in:

• A. 1916
• B. 1919
• C. 1935
• D. 1950

Q78. [English/GK] The maxim ‘audi alteram partem’ means:

• A. No bias
• B. Hear the other side
• C. Right to remedy
• D. Speedy trial

Q79. [English/GK] NALSA operates under the:

• A. CPC
• B. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
• C. Advocates Act
• D. Constitution directly

Q80. [English/GK] The head of the district judiciary is the:

• A. District Magistrate
• B. District & Sessions Judge
• C. Collector
• D. SP

Q81. [CPC] Order 1 Rule 10 CPC deals with:

• A. Rejection of plaint
• B. Addition/substitution of parties
• C. Amendment
• D. Injunction

Q82. [CPC] A caveat is provided under the CPC in:

• A. Section 148A
• B. Section 151
• C. Section 114
• D. Order 39

Q83. [BSA/Evidence] A hostile witness may be cross-examined by:

• A. Only the opposite party
• B. The party calling him, with leave of court
• C. The judge only
• D. No one

Q84. [BSA/Evidence] Primary evidence means:

• A. A certified copy
• B. The document itself
• C. Oral account
• D. A photograph

Q85. [BSA/Evidence] Secondary evidence is admissible when the original is:

• A. Available
• B. Lost/destroyed/withheld
• C. In court
• D. Registered

Q86. [Criminal Law] Theft is defined under BNS in:

• A. Section 301
• B. Section 303
• C. Section 305
• D. Section 309

Q87. [Criminal Law] Robbery is defined under BNS in:

• A. Section 309
• B. Section 310
• C. Section 311
• D. Section 312

Q88. [Criminal Law] Dowry death — BNS:

• A. Section 78
• B. Section 80
• C. Section 85
• D. Section 108

Q89. [Criminal Law] Cruelty by husband/relatives — BNS:

• A. Section 84
• B. Section 85
• C. Section 86
• D. Section 87

Q90. [Criminal Law] Forensic visit to crime scene is mandatory for offences punishable with:

• A. 3 years+
• B. 5 years+
• C. 7 years+
• D. 10 years+

Q91. [Constitution] Preventive detention safeguards are in:

• A. Article 20
• B. Article 21
• C. Article 22
• D. Article 19

Q92. [Constitution] Uniform Civil Code (DPSP) is in:

• A. Article 40
• B. Article 44
• C. Article 48
• D. Article 51

Q93. [Constitution] Speedy trial has been read into:

• A. Article 19
• B. Article 21
• C. Article 25
• D. Article 300A

Q94. [Civil Law] Coercion under the Contract Act is defined in:

• A. Section 15
• B. Section 16
• C. Section 17
• D. Section 18

Q95. [Civil Law] Undue influence is defined in the Contract Act under:

• A. Section 15
• B. Section 16
• C. Section 17
• D. Section 18

Q96. [Civil Law] Doctrine of holding out (partnership by estoppel) — Partnership Act:

• A. Section 25
• B. Section 28
• C. Section 69
• D. Section 4

Q97. [Special Laws] Limitation for an appeal to the High Court (civil) is generally:

• A. 30 days
• B. 60 days
• C. 90 days
• D. 120 days

Q98. [Special Laws] An arbitration agreement must be:

• A. Oral
• B. In writing
• C. Registered
• D. Notarised

Q99. [English/GK] The antonym of ‘exonerate’ is:

• A. Acquit
• B. Blame/incriminate
• C. Pardon
• D. Release

Q100. [English/GK] ‘Stare decisis’ means:

• A. Change precedent
• B. Stand by decided cases
• C. Trial in absentia
• D. A civil decree