Chhattisgarh HJS (District Judge) — Prelims Pattern Mock 2 (100 Questions)

Q1. [Cases] Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corp recognised:

• A. Right to privacy
• B. Right to livelihood as part of Art.21
• C. Reservation
• D. Bail

Q2. [Cases] M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Oleum gas) laid down:

• A. Strict liability
• B. Absolute liability
• C. Vicarious liability
• D. No liability

Q3. [Cases] Kesavananda Bharati was decided by a bench of:

• A. 7 judges
• B. 9 judges
• C. 11 judges
• D. 13 judges

Q4. [Cases] Shreya Singhal v. Union of India struck down:

• A. s.66A IT Act
• B. s.377 IPC
• C. s.497 IPC
• D. s.124A IPC

Q5. [Cases] Navtej Singh Johar read down:

• A. s.66A
• B. s.377 IPC
• C. s.497 IPC
• D. s.124A

Q6. [Cases] Joseph Shine struck down:

• A. s.377
• B. s.497 IPC (adultery)
• C. s.66A
• D. s.124A

Q7. [Cases] Maneka Gandhi linked Articles:

• A. 14, 19, 21 (golden triangle)
• B. 20, 22
• C. 25, 26
• D. 32, 226

Q8. [Cases] Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab upheld the death penalty for:

• A. All murders
• B. The ‘rarest of rare’ cases
• C. No cases
• D. Terrorism only

Q9. [Cases] Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa concerned:

• A. Bail
• B. Compensation for custodial death (Art.32)
• C. Reservation
• D. Privacy

Q10. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Audi alteram partem’ + ‘nemo judex in causa sua’ constitute:

• A. Res judicata
• B. Principles of natural justice
• C. Estoppel
• D. Double jeopardy

Q11. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Ex turpi causa non oritur actio’ means:

• A. Right implies remedy
• B. No action arises from a base/illegal cause
• C. Hear both sides
• D. Buyer beware

Q12. [Maxims/Cases] ‘De minimis non curat lex’ means:

• A. Law cares for all
• B. Law does not concern itself with trifles
• C. Strict liability
• D. No remedy

Q13. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Salus populi suprema lex’ means:

• A. Individual first
• B. The welfare of the people is the supreme law
• C. No law
• D. State supremacy

Q14. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Delegatus non potest delegare’ means:

• A. Delegate freely
• B. A delegate cannot further delegate
• C. Sub-delegation allowed
• D. No delegation

Q15. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Res judicata pro veritate accipitur’ means:

• A. Re-try freely
• B. A matter adjudged is taken as true
• C. No finality
• D. Appeal always

Q16. [Legal GK] The BNS reduced the number of sections from the IPC’s 511 to:

• A. 531
• B. 358
• C. 170
• D. 484

Q17. [Legal GK] The BNSS increased sections from the CrPC’s 484 to:

• A. 358
• B. 511
• C. 531
• D. 170

Q18. [Legal GK] The BSA has ___ sections vs the Evidence Act’s 167:

• A. 358
• B. 531
• C. 170
• D. 150

Q19. [Legal GK] ‘Community service’ as punishment applies chiefly to:

• A. Murder
• B. Petty offences
• C. Terrorism
• D. Rape

Q20. [Legal GK] Mandatory forensic examination under BNSS applies to offences punishable with:

• A. 3 yr+
• B. 7 yr+
• C. 5 yr+
• D. 10 yr+

Q21. [Legal GK] Electronic/audio-video recording of search & seizure is required by the:

• A. BNS
• B. BNSS
• C. BSA
• D. IT Act

Q22. [Legal GK] Under BNSS, a judgment should be pronounced generally within ___ of arguments:

• A. 7 days
• B. 30 (extendable 45) days
• C. 90 days
• D. No limit

Q23. [Legal GK] Mercy petition timelines for death-row convicts are streamlined by the:

• A. BNS
• B. BNSS
• C. BSA
• D. Constitution

Q24. [Legal GK] Victim compensation scheme under BNSS corresponds to old:

• A. s.357
• B. s.357A
• C. s.358
• D. s.359

Q25. [Legal GK] ‘Zero FIR’ + ‘e-FIR’ are strengthened by the:

• A. BNS
• B. BNSS
• C. BSA
• D. Consumer Act

Q26. [Legal GK] Plea bargaining excludes offences against:

• A. Property
• B. Women and children (and death/life/7yr+)
• C. The State only
• D. Companies

Q27. [Legal GK] The Mediation Act was enacted in:

• A. 2019
• B. 2021
• C. 2023
• D. 2024

Q28. [Legal GK] The Jan Vishwas Act, 2023 aims to:

• A. Add offences
• B. Decriminalise minor offences (ease of living)
• C. Abolish courts
• D. Increase penalties

Q29. [Legal GK] The Public Prosecutor is a minister of:

• A. The executive
• B. Justice (duty of fairness)
• C. The complainant
• D. The police

Q30. [Legal GK] ‘Curative petition’ was recognised in:

• A. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra
• B. Kesavananda
• C. Maneka
• D. Bommai

Q31. [Legal GK] A ‘review petition’ in the SC is generally heard by:

• A. Open court
• B. Circulation (by the same judges)
• C. A new bench
• D. A larger bench

Q32. [Legal GK] The doctrine of ‘prospective overruling’ means a new rule applies:

• A. Retrospectively
• B. Only to future cases
• C. To pending only
• D. Never

Q33. [Legal GK] ‘Contempt of court’ is of two kinds:

• A. Direct/indirect
• B. Civil and criminal
• C. Public/private
• D. Major/minor

Q34. [Legal GK] Truth is a defence to contempt if:

• A. Never
• B. It is in public interest and bona fide (2006 amendment)
• C. Always
• D. Only for media

Q35. [Legal GK] The National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG) tracks:

• A. Judge salaries
• B. Case pendency and disposal
• C. Bail only
• D. FIRs

Q36. [Legal GK] ‘Lok Adalat’ awards are:

• A. Appealable
• B. Final and binding (deemed civil-court decree)
• C. Advisory
• D. Void

Q37. [Legal GK] Permanent Lok Adalats deal with:

• A. All disputes
• B. Public utility services disputes
• C. Only criminal
• D. Only family

Q38. [Legal GK] Gram Nyayalayas were established under the:

• A. CPC
• B. Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008
• C. LSA Act
• D. Panchayat Act

Q39. [Legal GK] The Commercial Courts Act, 2015 applies to disputes of a ‘specified value’ of at least:

• A. Rs.1 lakh
• B. Rs.3 lakh
• C. Rs.10 lakh
• D. Rs.1 crore

Q40. [Legal GK] Pre-institution mediation is mandatory (subject to urgent relief) under the:

• A. CPC
• B. Commercial Courts Act, 2015 (s.12A)
• C. Mediation Act
• D. Arbitration Act

Q41. [CPC] ‘Inherent powers’ under s.151 cannot be used to:

• A. Do justice
• B. Override express provisions of the Code
• C. Prevent abuse
• D. Fill gaps

Q42. [CPC] A temporary injunction can be granted ex parte under:

• A. O.39 R.1
• B. O.39 R.3
• C. O.39 R.4
• D. O.40

Q43. [CPC] Disobedience of an injunction is punishable under:

• A. O.39 R.1
• B. O.39 R.2A
• C. O.40
• D. s.151

Q44. [CPC] A suit for a declaration is provided under the:

• A. CPC s.34
• B. Specific Relief Act s.34
• C. TPA
• D. ICA

Q45. [CPC] A perpetual injunction is granted under the:

• A. CPC O.39
• B. Specific Relief Act s.38
• C. TPA
• D. ICA

Q46. [CPC] A mandatory injunction is under the:

• A. CPC
• B. Specific Relief Act s.39
• C. TPA
• D. ICA

Q47. [CPC] Recovery of possession of immovable property (based on title) — SRA:

• A. s.5
• B. s.6
• C. s.9
• D. s.10

Q48. [CPC] Recovery of possession dispossessed without consent (summary, within 6 months) — SRA:

• A. s.5
• B. s.6
• C. s.9
• D. s.10

Q49. [CPC] Substituted performance of contract (2018) — SRA:

• A. s.14
• B. s.16
• C. s.20
• D. s.21

Q50. [CPC] ‘Interpleader’ relief is provided in — SRA/CPC:

• A. SRA s.20
• B. CPC s.88 & Order 35
• C. TPA
• D. ICA

Q51. [CPC] Suits relating to public nuisance/public charities (representative) — CPC:

• A. s.91-92
• B. s.9
• C. s.11
• D. s.80

Q52. [CPC] Notice to Government before suit — CPC:

• A. s.79
• B. s.80
• C. s.81
• D. s.82

Q53. [CPC] A plaint must state facts constituting the cause of action and:

• A. Evidence
• B. When it arose (limitation)
• C. Arguments
• D. Law

Q54. [CPC] Doctrine of ‘merger’ means the lower court’s decree merges into the:

• A. Plaint
• B. Appellate/superior court’s decree
• C. Written statement
• D. FIR

Q55. [CPC] ‘Functus officio’ means a court/authority that has:

• A. Full power
• B. Discharged its function and cannot re-open it
• C. Jurisdiction
• D. Appellate power

Q56. [BNS 2023] ‘Culpable homicide’ is genus; ‘murder’ is:

• A. Unrelated
• B. A species of culpable homicide
• C. Wider
• D. A civil wrong

Q57. [BNS 2023] ‘Grievous hurt’ — number of kinds enumerated:

• A. 5
• B. 7
• C. 8
• D. 10

Q58. [BNS 2023] Consent as a defence is invalid if given by a person under:

• A. 18
• B. 12 (for the specific act)
• C. 16
• D. 21

Q59. [BNS 2023] ‘Abetment’ can be by (i) instigation, (ii) conspiracy, or (iii):

• A. Attempt
• B. Intentional aiding
• C. Preparation
• D. Negligence

Q60. [BNS 2023] Criminal conspiracy to commit a non-serious offence requires:

• A. Only agreement
• B. An act besides the agreement
• C. Nothing
• D. Preparation

Q61. [BNSS 2023] A Magistrate can record a confession before:

• A. Charge-sheet only
• B. Investigation or before trial commences
• C. Only at trial
• D. Only in appeal

Q62. [BNSS 2023] An FIR is NOT:

• A. Substantive evidence
• B. Merely to set the law in motion
• C. Conclusive proof
• D. Corroborative/contradictory use only

Q63. [BNSS 2023] A ‘charge-sheet’ vs ‘closure report’ — the latter is filed when:

• A. Prima facie case exists
• B. No sufficient evidence is found
• C. Accused confesses
• D. Trial ends

Q64. [BNSS 2023] Cognizance of an offence means the Magistrate:

• A. Arrests
• B. Takes judicial notice/applies mind to proceed
• C. Convicts
• D. Acquits

Q65. [BNSS 2023] The ‘committal’ of a case to the Court of Session is done by the:

• A. Police
• B. Magistrate
• C. High Court
• D. Sessions Judge

Q66. [BSA 2023] ‘Relevancy’ and ‘admissibility’ — a fact may be relevant but:

• A. Always admissible
• B. Not admissible (e.g., privileged)
• C. Conclusive
• D. Hearsay

Q67. [BSA 2023] ‘Circumstantial evidence’ is opposed to:

• A. Documentary
• B. Direct evidence
• C. Oral
• D. Primary

Q68. [BSA 2023] A ‘presumption of fact’ (may presume) is:

• A. Conclusive
• B. Rebuttable/discretionary
• C. Mandatory
• D. Irrelevant

Q69. [BSA 2023] ‘Burden of proof’ in a criminal case is always on the:

• A. Accused
• B. Prosecution (except statutory reverse burden)
• C. Court
• D. Complainant

Q70. [BSA 2023] Extra-judicial confession is:

• A. Strong evidence
• B. Weak evidence needing corroboration
• C. Conclusive
• D. Inadmissible

Q71. [General Studies] The tenure of a High Court judge is until the age of:

• A. 60
• B. 62
• C. 65
• D. 70

Q72. [General Studies] The tenure of a Supreme Court judge is until the age of:

• A. 62
• B. 65
• C. 68
• D. 70

Q73. [General Studies] The first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India was:

• A. Leila Seth
• B. Fathima Beevi
• C. Anna Chandy
• D. Ruma Pal

Q74. [General Studies] The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the:

• A. Parliament
• B. President
• C. Collegium
• D. Law Minister

Q75. [General Studies] Judicial review in India is derived from the:

• A. UK model
• B. US-influenced constitutional scheme (Arts.13,32,226)
• C. French model
• D. No source

Q76. [General Studies] ‘Amicus curiae’ means:

• A. Friend of a party
• B. Friend of the court
• C. Prosecutor
• D. Defence counsel

Q77. [General Studies] ‘In camera’ proceedings are:

• A. Public
• B. Held in private (not open court)
• C. Recorded on camera
• D. Appellate

Q78. [General Studies] ‘Sub silentio’ precedent is one decided:

• A. With full argument
• B. Without conscious consideration of a point
• C. In appeal
• D. By a larger bench

Q79. [General Studies] ‘Per incuriam’ decision is one rendered:

• A. Correctly
• B. In ignorance of a binding statute/precedent
• C. By consent
• D. Unanimously

Q80. [General Studies] The doctrine of ‘stare decisis’ binds a High Court to:

• A. Its own single-judge only
• B. Supreme Court decisions (Art.141)
• C. No one
• D. Foreign courts

Q81. [BNS 2023] ‘Sedition’ (old s.124A) is replaced in BNS by an offence concerning:

• A. Theft
• B. Acts endangering sovereignty/unity/integrity (s.152)
• C. Marriage
• D. Nuisance

Q82. [Constitution] The ‘golden triangle’ of the Constitution comprises Articles:

• A. 14,19,21
• B. 32,226,227
• C. 19,20,21
• D. 124,217,235

Q83. [CPC] ‘Order 21’ is famously called the:

• A. Heart of CPC
• B. Backbone/longest order (execution)
• C. Preamble
• D. Schedule

Q84. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Best evidence rule’ prefers:

• A. Secondary
• B. Primary/original evidence
• C. Oral
• D. Hearsay

Q85. [Contract] ‘Consideration’ need not be adequate but must be:

• A. Adequate
• B. Real and lawful
• C. Monetary
• D. Written

Q86. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Nistar rights under the CG Land Revenue Code relate to:

• A. Rent
• B. Customary rights over village common resources
• C. Bail
• D. Mutation

Q87. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The CG Land Revenue Code, 1959 was adopted from the:

• A. Rajasthan Act
• B. Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code
• C. Punjab Act
• D. Bihar Act

Q88. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Restriction on transfer of land by members of aboriginal tribes in CG requires permission of the:

• A. Gram Sabha
• B. Collector
• C. Civil Judge
• D. High Court

Q89. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Under the CG Rent Control Act, 2011, eviction is ordered by the:

• A. Civil Judge
• B. Rent Controlling Authority
• C. Collector
• D. Sessions Judge

Q90. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] ‘Bhumiswami’ rights in CG are:

• A. Non-transferable
• B. Heritable & transferable (with restrictions)
• C. For life
• D. Government’s

Q91. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The village land records in CG are maintained by the:

• A. SDM
• B. Patwari
• C. Tehsildar
• D. Collector

Q92. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Diversion of agricultural land in CG requires an order of the:

• A. Gram Sabha
• B. Competent revenue authority
• C. Civil Judge
• D. High Court

Q93. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] ‘Khasra’ and ‘khatauni’ are:

• A. Criminal records
• B. Revenue records of plots and holdings
• C. Rent deeds
• D. Decrees

Q94. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Appeal from a Tehsildar in CG lies to the:

• A. High Court
• B. SDO/Collector (revenue hierarchy)
• C. Board directly
• D. Civil Judge

Q95. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The Fifth Schedule/Scheduled Areas are significant in CG because of its:

• A. Urban population
• B. Large tribal population
• C. Ports
• D. Deserts

Q96. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] PESA, 1996 applies in CG’s:

• A. Municipal areas
• B. Scheduled Areas (Gram Sabha empowerment)
• C. Cities
• D. High Court

Q97. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Recovery of arrears of land revenue in CG is as:

• A. A civil suit
• B. A coercive revenue demand
• C. A crime
• D. A gift

Q98. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Recovery of arrears of land revenue in CG is effected as:

• A. A civil suit
• B. A coercive revenue demand
• C. A criminal prosecution
• D. A gift

Q99. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The CG High Court is at Bilaspur; the state capital is:

• A. Bilaspur
• B. Raipur
• C. Durg
• D. Korba

Q100. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] CG judicial service (Civil Judge) recruitment is conducted by the:

• A. CGPSC
• B. Chhattisgarh High Court
• C. CG Vyapam
• D. UPSC