Jharkhand HJS (District Judge) — Prelims Pattern Mock 2 (100 Questions)

Q1. [Commercial] A party can apply to set aside an award within (from receipt):

• A. 30 days
• B. 60 days
• C. 3 months (extendable 30 days)
• D. 1 year

Q2. [Commercial] ‘Patent illegality’ as a ground to set aside applies to:

• A. Foreign awards
• B. Domestic awards (s.34(2A))
• C. All awards
• D. No awards

Q3. [Commercial] Fast-track arbitration is provided in — A&C Act:

• A. s.29A
• B. s.29B
• C. s.11
• D. s.17

Q4. [Commercial] Time limit for making an arbitral award (domestic) — A&C Act:

• A. s.29A (12 months + 6)
• B. s.29B
• C. s.34
• D. s.36

Q5. [Commercial] A partner’s liability to third parties is:

• A. Limited
• B. Unlimited, joint and several
• C. Nil
• D. Only to capital

Q6. [Commercial] Dissolution of a firm by court — Partnership Act:

• A. s.39
• B. s.40
• C. s.44
• D. s.48

Q7. [Commercial] Mode of settlement of accounts on dissolution — Partnership Act:

• A. s.44
• B. s.48
• C. s.49
• D. s.53

Q8. [Commercial] An LLP is governed by the:

• A. Partnership Act 1932
• B. LLP Act 2008
• C. Companies Act
• D. Contract Act

Q9. [Commercial] ‘Caveat emptor’ means:

• A. Seller beware
• B. Let the buyer beware
• C. No warranty
• D. Strict liability

Q10. [Commercial] Risk in goods prima facie passes with:

• A. Delivery
• B. Property (ownership)
• C. Payment
• D. Contract

Q11. [Commercial] ‘Nemo dat quod non habet’ — exceptions in SOGA include:

• A. None
• B. Sale by mercantile agent/estoppel/voidable title
• C. All sales
• D. Only cash sales

Q12. [Commercial] An unpaid seller’s right of resale — SOGA:

• A. s.47
• B. s.50
• C. s.54
• D. s.55

Q13. [Commercial] IBC adjudicating authority for corporates is the:

• A. DRT
• B. NCLT
• C. High Court
• D. Civil Court

Q14. [Commercial] IBC adjudicating authority for individuals/firms is the:

• A. NCLT
• B. DRT
• C. High Court
• D. Consumer forum

Q15. [Commercial] Appeal from NCLT under IBC lies to the:

• A. High Court
• B. NCLAT
• C. Supreme Court
• D. DRAT

Q16. [Commercial] The ‘resolution plan’ under IBC must be approved by CoC with a vote of:

• A. 51%
• B. 66%
• C. 75%
• D. 100%

Q17. [Commercial] ‘Preferential transactions’ can be avoided under IBC:

• A. s.43
• B. s.45
• C. s.50
• D. s.66

Q18. [Commercial] A ‘company’ acquires legal personality on:

• A. MOA signing
• B. Incorporation/registration
• C. First meeting
• D. Trading

Q19. [Commercial] ‘Lifting the corporate veil’ is done to:

• A. Protect fraud
• B. Look at the real persons behind the company (fraud/tax evasion)
• C. Dissolve
• D. Merge

Q20. [Commercial] Doctrine of ‘ultra vires’ relates to acts beyond the:

• A. AoA
• B. Company’s objects/powers (MOA)
• C. Directors
• D. Shareholders

Q21. [Commercial] Doctrine of ‘indoor management’ (Turquand’s rule) protects:

• A. The company
• B. Outsiders dealing in good faith
• C. Directors
• D. Auditors

Q22. [Limitation] Suit by a beneficiary against a trustee for property — limitation:

• A. 3 years
• B. 12 years
• C. 30 years
• D. No limit

Q23. [Limitation] Time from which period begins is the:

• A. Date of decree
• B. Accrual of the cause of action
• C. Date of filing
• D. Date of summons

Q24. [Limitation] Fraud/mistake — limitation runs from:

• A. The wrong
• B. Discovery of the fraud/mistake
• C. The contract
• D. The decree

Q25. [Limitation] Legal disability — a minor may sue within the normal period from:

• A. The wrong
• B. Cessation of disability (attaining majority)
• C. Never
• D. Filing

Q26. [Limitation] Continuous running of time is not stopped by:

• A. Acknowledgment
• B. Subsequent disability/inability
• C. Part-payment
• D. Fraud

Q27. [Limitation] Suit for arrears of rent — limitation:

• A. 1 year
• B. 3 years
• C. 12 years
• D. 30 years

Q28. [Limitation] Suit on a promissory note payable on demand — limitation from:

• A. Demand
• B. The date of the note
• C. Default
• D. Notice

Q29. [Limitation] Application for execution of a decree — limitation:

• A. 3 years
• B. 12 years
• C. 30 years
• D. 1 year

Q30. [Limitation] Appeal to the High Court from a decree — limitation:

• A. 30 days
• B. 60 days
• C. 90 days
• D. 120 days

Q31. [Limitation] Appeal to a subordinate court (District Judge) — limitation:

• A. 30 days
• B. 60 days
• C. 90 days
• D. 120 days

Q32. [Limitation] Effect of a barred debt: it is:

• A. Void
• B. Not enforceable by suit but a valid consideration for a fresh promise
• C. Illegal
• D. Extinguished as a right

Q33. [Limitation] ‘Sufficient cause’ (s.5) is construed:

• A. Strictly
• B. Liberally to advance substantial justice
• C. Never
• D. Only for the State

Q34. [Family Law] Restitution of conjugal rights — HMA:

• A. s.9
• B. s.10
• C. s.11
• D. s.13

Q35. [Family Law] Judicial separation — HMA:

• A. s.9
• B. s.10
• C. s.11
• D. s.13

Q36. [Family Law] Irretrievable breakdown of marriage is:

• A. A statutory ground
• B. Not a statutory ground (SC uses Art.142)
• C. A void ground
• D. Automatic

Q37. [Family Law] ‘Sapinda’ relationship marriage is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void unless custom permits
• C. Voidable
• D. Legal

Q38. [Family Law] Maintenance pendente lite — HMA:

• A. s.24
• B. s.25
• C. s.26
• D. s.27

Q39. [Family Law] Permanent alimony — HMA:

• A. s.24
• B. s.25
• C. s.26
• D. s.27

Q40. [Family Law] Custody of children in matrimonial proceedings — HMA:

• A. s.25
• B. s.26
• C. s.27
• D. s.28

Q41. [Family Law] Hindu adoption is governed by the:

• A. HMA
• B. Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956
• C. HSA
• D. Guardians Act

Q42. [Family Law] A Hindu female’s property acquired as maintenance becomes her:

• A. Limited estate
• B. Absolute property (s.14 HSA)
• C. Coparcenary
• D. Trust

Q43. [Family Law] Class I heirs (HSA) include:

• A. Only sons
• B. Son, daughter, widow, mother
• C. Only widow
• D. Brothers

Q44. [Family Law] Talaq-e-biddat (instant triple talaq) is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void/unconstitutional (Shayara Bano; 2019 Act)
• C. Voidable
• D. Customary

Q45. [Family Law] Muslim wife’s right to dissolve marriage is under the:

• A. HMA
• B. Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939
• C. Special Marriage Act
• D. HAMA

Q46. [Family Law] ‘Khula’ is a divorce:

• A. By the husband
• B. At the wife’s instance (with consideration)
• C. By court
• D. Void

Q47. [Family Law] Maintenance to a divorced Muslim woman — landmark case:

• A. Shah Bano
• B. Sarla Mudgal
• C. Shayara Bano
• D. Danial Latifi

Q48. [Torts] ‘Ubi jus ibi remedium’ is illustrated by:

• A. Gloucester Grammar
• B. Ashby v. White
• C. Rylands
• D. Donoghue

Q49. [Torts] ‘Damnum sine injuria’ is illustrated by:

• A. Ashby v. White
• B. Gloucester Grammar School
• C. Donoghue
• D. M.C. Mehta

Q50. [Torts] Rylands v. Fletcher liability is for:

• A. Any escape
• B. Non-natural use + escape causing damage
• C. Negligence
• D. Nuisance

Q51. [Torts] Exceptions to Rylands v. Fletcher include:

• A. None
• B. Act of God, plaintiff’s default, consent, statutory authority
• C. Only negligence
• D. Only necessity

Q52. [Torts] Absolute liability (M.C. Mehta) has:

• A. Same exceptions
• B. No exceptions
• C. Only act of God
• D. Only consent

Q53. [Torts] ‘Res ipsa loquitur’ shifts the:

• A. Legal burden
• B. Evidential burden to the defendant
• C. Costs
• D. Nothing

Q54. [Torts] A master is liable for a servant’s tort under:

• A. Strict liability
• B. Vicarious liability
• C. Absolute liability
• D. No liability

Q55. [Torts] ‘Frolic of his own’ by a servant means the master is:

• A. Liable
• B. Not liable (outside course of employment)
• C. Absolutely liable
• D. Strictly liable

Q56. [Torts] Contributory negligence in India is governed by the principle of:

• A. All-or-nothing
• B. Apportionment of liability
• C. No defence
• D. Absolute bar

Q57. [Torts] Defamation — an innuendo is:

• A. A direct statement
• B. A statement defamatory by secondary/latent meaning
• C. Truth
• D. Privilege

Q58. [Torts] Defences to defamation include:

• A. Malice
• B. Truth (justification), fair comment, privilege
• C. Negligence
• D. Consent only

Q59. [Torts] Private nuisance requires:

• A. Public harm
• B. Unlawful interference with use/enjoyment of land
• C. A crime
• D. A contract

Q60. [Torts] Public nuisance is actionable in tort by a private person only if:

• A. Always
• B. He suffers special damage over and above the public
• C. Never
• D. With consent

Q61. [Torts] False imprisonment requires:

• A. Physical injury
• B. Total restraint of liberty without lawful justification
• C. A weapon
• D. Malice

Q62. [Torts] ‘Assault’ in tort is:

• A. Actual contact
• B. Apprehension of imminent harmful/offensive contact
• C. Battery
• D. Nuisance

Q63. [Torts] The tort of ‘deceit’ requires a false representation made:

• A. Innocently
• B. Knowingly/recklessly, intended to be acted upon, causing loss
• C. By mistake
• D. Negligently only

Q64. [Torts] Remoteness — ‘Wagon Mound’ replaced the direct-consequence test of:

• A. Donoghue
• B. Re Polemis
• C. Rylands
• D. Ashby

Q65. [Torts] Sovereign vs non-sovereign function distinction (State liability) arose in:

• A. Kasturilal
• B. M.C. Mehta
• C. Rylands
• D. Donoghue

Q66. [Jurisprudence] H.L.A. Hart’s concept: law as a union of:

• A. Command & sanction
• B. Primary and secondary rules
• C. Grundnorm
• D. Volksgeist

Q67. [Jurisprudence] ‘Rule of recognition’ is a concept of:

• A. Kelsen
• B. Hart
• C. Austin
• D. Savigny

Q68. [Jurisprudence] ‘Grundnorm’ is the basic norm in the theory of:

• A. Hart
• B. Kelsen
• C. Austin
• D. Pound

Q69. [Jurisprudence] Natural law thinkers include:

• A. Austin
• B. Aquinas, Fuller
• C. Kelsen
• D. Hart

Q70. [Jurisprudence] Legal realism emphasises:

• A. Text
• B. What courts actually do
• C. Grundnorm
• D. Command

Q71. [Jurisprudence] A ‘right in rem’ is available against:

• A. A specific person
• B. The world at large
• C. The State
• D. A contracting party

Q72. [Jurisprudence] A ‘right in personam’ is available against:

• A. The world
• B. A determinate person
• C. The State
• D. No one

Q73. [Jurisprudence] ‘Ratio decidendi’ is found by:

• A. The headnote
• B. The material facts + decision (reason)
• C. The dissent
• D. The obiter

Q74. [Jurisprudence] Interpretation: ‘Expressio unius est exclusio alterius’ means:

• A. Include all
• B. Express mention of one excludes others
• C. Widest meaning
• D. Same class

Q75. [Jurisprudence] ‘Generalia specialibus non derogant’ means:

• A. General overrides special
• B. Special prevails over general
• C. No effect
• D. Repeal

Q76. [Jurisprudence] ‘Contemporanea expositio’ aids interpretation of:

• A. New statutes
• B. Old/ancient statutes by contemporary understanding
• C. Constitution
• D. Rules

Q77. [Jurisprudence] A proviso generally:

• A. Enlarges
• B. Carves out an exception to the main provision
• C. Repeals
• D. Defines

Q78. [Jurisprudence] An ‘explanation’ in a statute is meant to:

• A. Add offences
• B. Clarify/explain the provision
• C. Repeal
• D. Enlarge scope always

Q79. [Jurisprudence] ‘Mens rea’ is generally presumed unless:

• A. Always required
• B. Excluded expressly or by necessary implication (strict liability)
• C. Never required
• D. In torts

Q80. [Cases] A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras took a ___ view of Art.21:

• A. Wide
• B. Narrow (later overruled)
• C. Due process
• D. Basic structure

Q81. [Cases] ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (Habeas Corpus case) was overruled in:

• A. Maneka Gandhi
• B. K.S. Puttaswamy
• C. Kesavananda
• D. Bommai

Q82. [Cases] Golaknath v. State of Punjab held Parliament cannot amend:

• A. Any law
• B. Fundamental Rights (later modified by Kesavananda)
• C. DPSP
• D. Preamble

Q83. [Cases] Minerva Mills struck down parts of the ___ Amendment:

• A. 24th
• B. 42nd
• C. 44th
• D. 1st

Q84. [Cases] Indra Sawhney v. Union of India dealt with:

• A. Privacy
• B. Reservation & the 50% ceiling / creamy layer
• C. Sedition
• D. Bail

Q85. [Cases] Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan guidelines were later codified in the:

• A. POCSO Act
• B. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013
• C. DV Act
• D. NI Act

Q86. [Jharkhand Local Law] Restoration of illegally alienated tribal land under the CNT Act is provided in:

• A. s.46
• B. s.71A
• C. s.49
• D. s.20

Q87. [Jharkhand Local Law] ‘Mundari Khuntkatti’ tenancy under the CNT Act is a form of:

• A. Urban tenancy
• B. Aboriginal/communal tenure of the Mundas
• C. Rent
• D. Mortgage

Q88. [Jharkhand Local Law] ‘Bhugat bandha’ under the CNT Act is a kind of:

• A. Sale
• B. Usufructuary mortgage of tribal land
• C. Gift
• D. Lease of shops

Q89. [Jharkhand Local Law] Revenue courts under the CNT/SPT scheme are called:

• A. Civil courts
• B. SAR (Scheduled Areas Regulation) courts
• C. Sessions courts
• D. Consumer forums

Q90. [Jharkhand Local Law] Under the SPT Act, the record of rights is prepared and disputes decided by the:

• A. Civil court
• B. Revenue authorities (SDO/Deputy Commissioner)
• C. High Court
• D. Panchayat

Q91. [Jharkhand Local Law] Transfer of tribal land to a non-tribal without permission under the CNT Act is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void
• C. Voidable
• D. Registrable

Q92. [Jharkhand Local Law] The CNT Act was enacted to protect tenants of the:

• A. Santhal Pargana
• B. Chota Nagpur region
• C. Kolhan only
• D. North Bihar

Q93. [Jharkhand Local Law] The SPT Act, 1949 is even more protective in that transfer of raiyati land is:

• A. Freely allowed
• B. Almost wholly barred
• C. On registration
• D. On mutation

Q94. [Jharkhand Local Law] Permission for a permissible transfer of tribal land is granted by the:

• A. Civil Judge
• B. Deputy Commissioner
• C. Gram Sabha
• D. High Court

Q95. [Jharkhand Local Law] ‘Khuntkattidar’ means a:

• A. Trader
• B. Original clearer/founder of a village (aboriginal)
• C. Money lender
• D. Tenant of shops

Q96. [Jharkhand Local Law] Wilkinson’s Rules historically governed administration in:

• A. Santhal Pargana
• B. Kolhan (Ho areas)
• C. Ranchi city
• D. Dhanbad

Q97. [Jharkhand Local Law] The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution relates to:

• A. Municipalities
• B. Administration of Scheduled Areas & Scheduled Tribes
• C. Languages
• D. Anti-defection

Q98. [Jharkhand Local Law] PESA, 1996 empowers:

• A. Municipalities
• B. Gram Sabhas in Scheduled Areas
• C. High Courts
• D. Revenue courts

Q99. [Jharkhand Local Law] The overriding aim of the CNT & SPT Acts is:

• A. Ease of business
• B. Protection of tribal land from alienation
• C. Revenue maximisation
• D. Urban housing

Q100. [Jharkhand Local Law] Jharkhand judicial service (Civil Judge) recruitment is conducted by the:

• A. JPSC
• B. Jharkhand High Court
• C. JSSC
• D. UPSC