MP HJS (District Judge) — Prelims Pattern Mock 3 (100 Questions)

Q1. [CPC] A ‘legal representative’ can be brought on record after death under:

• A. O.22 R.2
• B. O.22 R.3/4
• C. O.22 R.9
• D. O.1 R.10

Q2. [CPC] Setting aside abatement is under:

• A. O.22 R.3
• B. O.22 R.9
• C. O.22 R.10
• D. O.9 R.13

Q3. [CPC] Assignment/devolution of interest during a suit is under:

• A. O.22 R.9
• B. O.22 R.10
• C. O.1 R.10
• D. O.6 R.17

Q4. [CPC] Withdrawal of a suit with liberty to file afresh is under:

• A. O.23 R.1
• B. O.23 R.3
• C. O.22 R.1
• D. O.6 R.17

Q5. [CPC] A compromise decree is recorded under:

• A. O.23 R.1
• B. O.23 R.3
• C. O.20 R.6
• D. O.21

Q6. [CPC] Payment into court by the defendant is under:

• A. O.24
• B. O.25
• C. O.26
• D. O.27

Q7. [CPC] Security for costs from a plaintiff residing abroad is under:

• A. O.24
• B. O.25
• C. O.26
• D. O.32

Q8. [CPC] A commission for examination of a witness unable to attend is under:

• A. O.26 R.1
• B. O.26 R.4
• C. O.26 R.9
• D. O.26 R.10A

Q9. [CPC] A commission for scientific/technical investigation is under:

• A. O.26 R.9
• B. O.26 R.10A
• C. O.26 R.11
• D. O.26 R.14

Q10. [CPC] Suits by/against the Government require signing by a:

• A. Minister
• B. Recognised agent/pleader (as prescribed)
• C. Collector
• D. Secretary

Q11. [CPC] Service of summons on a corporation is on the:

• A. Any employee
• B. Secretary/director/principal officer
• C. Watchman
• D. Customer

Q12. [CPC] Service on a partnership firm may be on:

• A. Any partner or the manager
• B. Only the senior partner
• C. A customer
• D. The auditor

Q13. [CPC] A minor’s suit compromise requires:

• A. No leave
• B. Leave of the court
• C. Only guardian’s consent
• D. Nothing

Q14. [CPC] An indigent person’s application may be rejected if:

• A. He is poor
• B. He has sufficient means / no cause of action / has transferred property to sue as indigent
• C. Never
• D. He is illiterate

Q15. [CPC] A ‘summary suit’ defendant must obtain ___ to defend:

• A. Nothing
• B. Leave to defend
• C. A decree
• D. An injunction

Q16. [CPC] Attachment before judgment can be ordered when the defendant is about to:

• A. Pay
• B. Dispose of/remove property to obstruct execution
• C. Appeal
• D. Compromise

Q17. [CPC] Arrest before judgment (Order 38 R.1) is for a defendant about to:

• A. Pay
• B. Abscond/leave to delay/obstruct
• C. Appear
• D. Settle

Q18. [CPC] A receiver is appointed to:

• A. Decide the suit
• B. Preserve/manage property pendente lite
• C. Execute decree only
• D. Arrest

Q19. [CPC] An appeal is a continuation of the:

• A. FIR
• B. Original proceeding/suit
• C. Execution
• D. Reference

Q20. [CPC] ‘Memorandum of appeal’ must set out the:

• A. Evidence
• B. Grounds of objection to the decree
• C. Arguments
• D. Charges

Q21. [CPC] Summary dismissal of an appeal (no substantial ground) is under:

• A. O.41 R.11
• B. O.41 R.22
• C. O.41 R.27
• D. O.41 R.33

Q22. [CPC] Remand of a case by the appellate court is under:

• A. O.41 R.23
• B. O.41 R.25
• C. O.41 R.27
• D. O.41 R.33

Q23. [CPC] A Letters Patent Appeal is not maintainable against a:

• A. Single-judge original decree
• B. Single-judge order in second appeal (s.100A)
• C. Interlocutory order
• D. Consent decree

Q24. [CPC] ‘Abatement’ does not occur where the right to sue:

• A. Does not survive
• B. Survives to/against the surviving parties
• C. Is barred
• D. Is withdrawn

Q25. [CPC] Order 7 Rule 1 requires the plaint to contain the:

• A. Evidence
• B. Particulars (parties, facts, relief, valuation)
• C. Arguments
• D. Law

Q26. [CPC] A court fee deficiency, if not made good, leads to:

• A. Dismissal
• B. Rejection of plaint (O.7 R.11(c))
• C. Decree
• D. Injunction

Q27. [CPC] ‘Written statement’ must be filed generally within ___ (extendable):

• A. 30 days
• B. 30-90 days
• C. 6 months
• D. No limit

Q28. [CPC] A specific denial in the written statement is required; a general denial is treated as:

• A. Denial
• B. Admission
• C. Set-off
• D. Counter-claim

Q29. [CPC] Framing of issues is done from:

• A. Evidence
• B. Pleadings, documents, oral examination
• C. Arguments
• D. The FIR

Q30. [CPC] ‘Preliminary issue’ of law (e.g., jurisdiction/limitation) may be tried:

• A. Never
• B. First, if it can dispose of the case
• C. Only with facts
• D. In appeal

Q31. [CPC] Adjournment costs may be imposed under:

• A. O.17 R.1
• B. O.17 R.3
• C. O.14
• D. O.18

Q32. [CPC] Where a party fails to produce evidence, the court may decide the suit under:

• A. O.17 R.2/3
• B. O.9
• C. O.14
• D. O.20

Q33. [CPC] ‘Right to begin’ (leading evidence first) generally lies with the:

• A. Defendant
• B. Plaintiff (unless burden shifts)
• C. Court
• D. Either

Q34. [CPC] A judgment must be pronounced within ___ of conclusion of hearing:

• A. 7 days
• B. 30 days (extendable 60)
• C. 90 days
• D. No limit

Q35. [CPC] ‘Decree’ follows the judgment and must agree with it — drawn up within:

• A. 7 days
• B. 15 days
• C. 30 days
• D. 60 days

Q36. [CPC] Modes of execution include arrest, attachment & sale, delivery of property and:

• A. FIR
• B. Appointment of a receiver / by any manner the court directs
• C. Injunction only
• D. Reference

Q37. [CPC] Questions relating to execution/discharge between parties are decided by the:

• A. Trial court fresh suit
• B. Executing court (s.47), not a fresh suit
• C. Appellate court
• D. High Court

Q38. [CPC] ‘Precept’ is valid for attachment for a period of:

• A. 1 month
• B. 2 months
• C. 6 months
• D. 1 year

Q39. [CPC] Rateable distribution requires applications by decree-holders before:

• A. Judgment
• B. Receipt of assets by the court
• C. Attachment
• D. Appeal

Q40. [CPC] ‘Garnishee’ proceedings attach a debt owed to the judgment-debtor by a:

• A. Court
• B. Third person (garnishee)
• C. Surety
• D. Witness

Q41. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Conclusive proof’ example under the Evidence Act:

• A. Dying declaration
• B. Legitimacy of a child born in wedlock (s.112)
• C. Admission
• D. Confession

Q42. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Fact in issue’ is determined by:

• A. The judge alone
• B. The substantive law and pleadings
• C. The witnesses
• D. The FIR

Q43. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Relevancy’ is a question of:

• A. Fact
• B. Law
• C. Discretion
• D. Opinion

Q44. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Admissibility’ is decided by the:

• A. Jury
• B. Judge
• C. Witness
• D. Party

Q45. [Evidence/BSA] A ‘presumption of law’ (shall presume) is:

• A. Discretionary
• B. Mandatory (rebuttable unless conclusive)
• C. Irrelevant
• D. Optional

Q46. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Similar fact evidence’ is generally:

• A. Admissible
• B. Inadmissible unless relevant to a fact in issue
• C. Conclusive
• D. Hearsay

Q47. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Character’ of a party in a criminal case — previous conviction is relevant to:

• A. Guilt
• B. Sentence/character in reply
• C. Bail
• D. Jurisdiction

Q48. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Corroboration’ of an approver’s evidence must be:

• A. Unnecessary
• B. Independent and material, connecting the accused
• C. By the approver
• D. By the police only

Q49. [Evidence/BSA] The ‘rule against hearsay’ has exceptions such as:

• A. Opinion
• B. Dying declaration, res gestae, admissions
• C. Character
• D. Estoppel

Q50. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Primary’ vs ‘secondary’ — a certified copy of a public document is:

• A. Primary
• B. Secondary
• C. Conclusive
• D. Oral

Q51. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Estoppel by record’ arises from a:

• A. Contract
• B. Judgment (res judicata)
• C. Deed
• D. Conduct

Q52. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Estoppel by deed’ arises from a:

• A. Judgment
• B. Solemn deed/instrument
• C. Conduct
• D. Statute

Q53. [Evidence/BSA] A tenant cannot deny the landlord’s title at the beginning of tenancy — this is:

• A. Estoppel by record
• B. Tenant estoppel (s.116)
• C. Promissory estoppel
• D. Waiver

Q54. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Promissory estoppel’ operates against the:

• A. Private party only
• B. Government too (in appropriate cases)
• C. No one
• D. The court

Q55. [Evidence/BSA] A confession must be voluntary; the burden to prove voluntariness is on the:

• A. Accused
• B. Prosecution
• C. Court
• D. Witness

Q56. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Section 27’ discovery statement — the portion admissible is:

• A. Whole confession
• B. So much as distinctly relates to the fact discovered
• C. Motive
• D. Nothing

Q57. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Test identification parade’ should ideally be held:

• A. After trial
• B. Soon after arrest, before the witness sees the accused in court
• C. During trial
• D. In appeal

Q58. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Substantive evidence’ of identity is the identification made:

• A. At TIP
• B. In court (dock identification)
• C. By the IO
• D. By the Magistrate

Q59. [Evidence/BSA] A ‘leading question’ cannot be asked, without leave, in:

• A. Cross
• B. Examination-in-chief and re-examination
• C. Any stage
• D. Recall

Q60. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Refreshing memory’ is permitted from a document made:

• A. Long after
• B. Contemporaneously or soon after the fact
• C. By another
• D. In court

Q61. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Hostile witness’ — the whole testimony is:

• A. Discarded
• B. Not necessarily discarded; credible parts usable
• C. Conclusive
• D. Inadmissible

Q62. [Evidence/BSA] The ‘doctrine of confirmation by subsequent facts’ relates to:

• A. Admissions
• B. s.27 discovery
• C. Character
• D. Estoppel

Q63. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Res gestae’ is codified (old) in:

• A. s.6
• B. s.8
• C. s.11
• D. s.32

Q64. [Evidence/BSA] Number of witnesses — ‘evidence is weighed, not counted’ reflects:

• A. s.134
• B. s.101
• C. s.114
• D. s.45

Q65. [Evidence/BSA] Adverse inference for withholding evidence is under illustration (g) of:

• A. s.101
• B. s.106
• C. s.114
• D. s.45

Q66. [Evidence/BSA] A ‘dumb witness’ may give evidence by:

• A. Not at all
• B. Writing or signs in open court
• C. Only an interpreter
• D. An affidavit

Q67. [Evidence/BSA] Communications made during marriage remain privileged even after:

• A. The marriage ends
• B. No, only during marriage
• C. Divorce only
• D. Death only

Q68. [Evidence/BSA] A judge/magistrate cannot be compelled to answer questions about his own conduct in court except:

• A. Never
• B. On the order of a superior court
• C. Freely
• D. Only in appeal

Q69. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Accomplice’ and ‘approver’ — corroboration is required as a rule of:

• A. Law
• B. Prudence
• C. Procedure
• D. Evidence Act mandate

Q70. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Circumstantial evidence’ conviction requires the circumstances to be:

• A. Proved on preponderance
• B. Fully established (cumulatively pointing to guilt)
• C. Suspicious
• D. Partly proved

Q71. [BNS 2023] ‘Injury’ under the BNS denotes harm illegally caused to:

• A. Only body
• B. Body, mind, reputation or property
• C. Only property
• D. Only reputation

Q72. [BNS 2023] ‘Illegal’ applies to everything which is an offence, or prohibited by law, or:

• A. Moral
• B. Furnishes ground for a civil action
• C. Religious
• D. Customary

Q73. [BNS 2023] A person is ‘legally bound to do’ a thing which it is:

• A. Optional
• B. Illegal in him to omit
• C. Moral
• D. Customary

Q74. [BNS 2023] ‘Voluntarily’ — a person causes an effect voluntarily when he causes it by means he:

• A. Did not intend
• B. Intended, or knew/had reason to believe likely
• C. By accident
• D. Negligently only

Q75. [BNS 2023] The general ‘right of private defence’ is NOT available where there is:

• A. Apprehension of death
• B. Time to have recourse to public authorities
• C. Grievous hurt
• D. Rape

Q76. [BNS 2023] Private defence causes more harm than necessary — the excess is:

• A. Protected
• B. Not protected (offence to that extent)
• C. Bailable
• D. Compoundable

Q77. [BNS 2023] ‘Common intention’ (s.3(5)) makes each participant liable for:

• A. Only his act
• B. The act done by any in furtherance of the common intention
• C. Nothing
• D. Only abetment

Q78. [BNS 2023] ‘Common object’ (unlawful assembly) — liability is:

• A. Individual
• B. Vicarious/constructive for members
• C. None
• D. Only leader

Q79. [BNS 2023] ‘Abetment by conspiracy’ requires an act/illegal omission in pursuance and:

• A. Nothing
• B. A conspiracy + act done
• C. Only agreement
• D. Attempt

Q80. [BNS 2023] Punishment for being a member of an unlawful assembly armed with a deadly weapon is:

• A. Lesser
• B. Enhanced
• C. Nil
• D. Fine only

Q81. [BNS 2023] ‘Assault’ requires:

• A. Actual contact
• B. A gesture/preparation causing apprehension of criminal force
• C. Injury
• D. A weapon

Q82. [BNS 2023] ‘Hurt’ vs ‘grievous hurt’ — fracture/dislocation of bone is:

• A. Hurt
• B. Grievous hurt
• C. No hurt
• D. Civil wrong

Q83. [BNS 2023] ‘Culpable homicide’ — intention to cause such bodily injury as is likely to cause death is:

• A. Murder always
• B. Culpable homicide (may be murder if clause (2)/(3) met)
• C. No offence
• D. Hurt

Q84. [BNS 2023] Death caused in a sudden fight in the heat of passion (no undue advantage) is:

• A. Murder
• B. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
• C. No offence
• D. Hurt

Q85. [BNS 2023] ‘Grave and sudden provocation’ must be:

• A. Self-induced
• B. Not sought/voluntarily provoked by the offender
• C. Planned
• D. By a third party only

Q86. [MP Local Law] Rural local self-government in Madhya Pradesh is under the:

• A. MP Land Revenue Code
• B. MP Panchayat Raj Avam Gram Swaraj Adhiniyam, 1993
• C. MP Rent Act
• D. Punjab Act

Q87. [MP Local Law] Time-bound delivery of public services in MP is guaranteed by the:

• A. MP Excise Act
• B. MP Lok Sewaon Ke Pradan Ki Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2010
• C. Rent Act
• D. Land Revenue Code

Q88. [MP Local Law] A revenue officer subordinate to the Tehsildar is the:

• A. Collector
• B. Naib-Tehsildar
• C. Commissioner
• D. SDM

Q89. [MP Local Law] Under the MP Land Revenue Code, an ‘occupancy tenant’ holds land under a:

• A. Bhumiswami
• B. The State
• C. Municipality
• D. Company

Q90. [MP Local Law] The record correcting entries of possession/cultivation in MP is the:

• A. FIR
• B. Khasra (girdawari)
• C. Charge
• D. Decree

Q91. [MP Local Law] An appeal from the Collector in revenue matters in MP lies to the:

• A. High Court
• B. Commissioner
• C. Board of Revenue directly
• D. Civil Judge

Q92. [MP Local Law] ‘Abadi’ land in a village refers to:

• A. Farm land
• B. Inhabited/settlement area
• C. Forest
• D. River bed

Q93. [MP Local Law] Land disputes involving the Government as a party in MP are decided under the:

• A. Rent Act
• B. Land Revenue Code (revenue courts)
• C. Contract Act
• D. CPC only

Q94. [MP Local Law] Bhumiswami rights can be forfeited/resumed for:

• A. Any reason
• B. Breach of statutory conditions (e.g., unauthorised diversion)
• C. Rent default only
• D. Never

Q95. [MP Local Law] The MP High Court’s territorial jurisdiction covers:

• A. MP and CG
• B. Madhya Pradesh only (after 2000 bifurcation)
• C. MP and Rajasthan
• D. Central India

Q96. [MP Local Law] ‘Patwari halka’ is the:

• A. Court
• B. Smallest revenue circle of a patwari
• C. District
• D. Tehsil

Q97. [MP Local Law] Mutation proceedings in MP are initiated on the basis of:

• A. FIR
• B. A report of transfer/succession
• C. A charge
• D. A plaint

Q98. [MP Local Law] A ‘bhu-abhilekh’ means the:

• A. Criminal record
• B. Land record
• C. Rent deed
• D. Decree

Q99. [MP Local Law] The competent authority to hear rent-eviction disputes under the MP Accommodation Control Act is the:

• A. Rent Controlling Authority/Civil Court as designated
• B. Sessions Court
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Tehsildar

Q100. [MP Local Law] MP judicial officers below District Judge are controlled administratively by the:

• A. State Government
• B. MP High Court (Art.235)
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Collector