Chhattisgarh HJS (District Judge) — Prelims Pattern Mock 3 (100 Questions)

Q1. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Best evidence’ of the contents of a document is the:

• A. Copy
• B. Original (primary)
• C. Oral account
• D. Photograph

Q2. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Judicial confession’ is one made before a:

• A. Police
• B. Magistrate/court
• C. Friend
• D. Relative

Q3. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Extra-judicial confession’ requires:

• A. No corroboration
• B. Corroboration (weak evidence)
• C. Nothing
• D. A Magistrate

Q4. [Evidence/BSA] A ‘presumption’ shifts the:

• A. Legal burden always
• B. Evidential burden (onus)
• C. Costs
• D. Jurisdiction

Q5. [Evidence/BSA] ‘Relevancy’ provisions are exhaustive; a fact not made relevant is:

• A. Admissible
• B. Inadmissible
• C. Conclusive
• D. Primary

Q6. [BNS 2023] ‘Right of private defence’ is available against an offence affecting the:

• A. State only
• B. Human body or property
• C. Reputation only
• D. Contract

Q7. [BNS 2023] A person abetting an offence, if the offence is not committed, is:

• A. Not liable
• B. Still punishable (abetment)
• C. Acquitted
• D. A witness

Q8. [BNS 2023] ‘Motive’ is:

• A. An ingredient of every offence
• B. Not an essential ingredient (relevant evidence)
• C. Conclusive
• D. Irrelevant

Q9. [BNS 2023] ‘Preparation’ is punishable in the BNS only for:

• A. All offences
• B. Specified offences (dacoity, waging war, counterfeiting)
• C. No offence
• D. Petty offences

Q10. [BNS 2023] ‘Sudden and grave provocation’ by the deceased reduces:

• A. Theft
• B. Murder to culpable homicide
• C. Cheating
• D. Robbery

Q11. [BNSS 2023] A ‘charge-sheet’ is filed under old ___ on completion of investigation:

• A. s.154
• B. s.161
• C. s.173
• D. s.164

Q12. [BNSS 2023] ‘Cognizance’ is taken of an offence, not an:

• A. FIR
• B. Offender
• C. Charge
• D. Report

Q13. [BNSS 2023] ‘Committal’ proceedings send a case to the Court of Session for offences:

• A. Bailable
• B. Exclusively triable by Sessions
• C. Petty
• D. Summons

Q14. [BNSS 2023] ‘Framing of charge’ requires a ___ case:

• A. Proved
• B. Prima facie
• C. Beyond doubt
• D. Civil

Q15. [BNSS 2023] ‘Sentence of imprisonment in default of fine’ is:

• A. Illegal
• B. Permissible (additional to substantive sentence)
• C. Only fine
• D. Life

Q16. [Constitution] Article 300A requires deprivation of property only by:

• A. Executive order
• B. Authority of law
• C. Ordinance
• D. Custom

Q17. [Constitution] ‘Compensation’ for acquisition of property is now governed by:

• A. Art.31
• B. The RFCTLARR Act, 2013
• C. Art.300A alone
• D. No law

Q18. [Constitution] ‘Doctrine of pith and substance’ saves a law incidentally encroaching on another:

• A. Right
• B. List entry
• C. Schedule
• D. Article

Q19. [Constitution] The power to punish for contempt of the Supreme Court is under:

• A. Art.129
• B. Art.215
• C. Art.142
• D. Art.226

Q20. [Constitution] The Governor can reserve a Bill for the President’s consideration under:

• A. Art.200
• B. Art.201
• C. Art.213
• D. Art.356

Q21. [Property] A ‘benami’ transaction is now:

• A. Valid
• B. Prohibited (Benami Transactions Prohibition Act)
• C. A gift
• D. A trust

Q22. [Property] ‘Adverse possession’ requires possession that is:

• A. Permissive
• B. Nec vi, nec clam, nec precario (open, continuous, hostile)
• C. Secret
• D. Short

Q23. [Property] The limitation for a suit based on adverse possession (against a private owner) is:

• A. 3 years
• B. 12 years
• C. 30 years
• D. 60 years

Q24. [Commercial] A cheque post-dated is payable:

• A. Immediately
• B. On or after the date written
• C. Never
• D. On demand before date

Q25. [Commercial] An ‘arbitral award’ is final and binding subject to:

• A. Appeal on merits
• B. Challenge under s.34 on limited grounds
• C. Retrial
• D. Review

Q26. [Cases] Menaka Gandhi’s principle of ‘fair procedure’ extended to:

• A. Only detention
• B. All State action affecting liberty
• C. Contracts
• D. Property

Q27. [Cases] Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration concerned:

• A. Bail
• B. Prisoners’ rights (Art.21)
• C. Reservation
• D. Privacy

Q28. [Cases] Hussainara Khatoon led to the right to:

• A. Property
• B. Speedy trial & free legal aid
• C. Reservation
• D. Privacy

Q29. [Cases] M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra recognised the right to:

• A. Bail
• B. Free legal aid to the accused
• C. Reservation
• D. Privacy

Q30. [Cases] Bandhua Mukti Morcha dealt with:

• A. Bonded labour (Art.21/23)
• B. Bail
• C. Reservation
• D. Property

Q31. [Cases] Francis Coralie Mullin expanded Art.21 to include the right to:

• A. Vote
• B. Live with human dignity
• C. Property
• D. Trade

Q32. [Cases] Bodhisattwa Gautam v. Subhra Chakraborty concerned:

• A. Bail
• B. Compensation for rape victims (Art.21)
• C. Reservation
• D. Property

Q33. [Cases] Nilabati Behera awarded compensation under:

• A. Art.226 only
• B. Art.32 (public law remedy for custodial death)
• C. Art.14
• D. Art.300A

Q34. [Cases] D.K. Basu guidelines were later given statutory form in:

• A. Old s.41B/50A CrPC
• B. The Evidence Act
• C. The IPC
• D. The TPA

Q35. [Cases] Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration restricted:

• A. Bail
• B. Routine handcuffing of prisoners
• C. Arrest
• D. FIR

Q36. [Cases] Sheela Barse v. State of Maharashtra concerned:

• A. Women prisoners’ rights
• B. Bail
• C. Reservation
• D. Property

Q37. [Cases] State of Maharashtra v. C.K. Jain / arrest norms feed into:

• A. Bail
• B. Arrest safeguards
• C. Reservation
• D. Property

Q38. [Cases] Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2013) held that a convicted MP/MLA:

• A. Retains seat
• B. Is disqualified immediately
• C. Gets bail
• D. Is protected

Q39. [Cases] Vishaka guidelines were based on ___ read into Art.21/19:

• A. Domestic law
• B. International conventions (CEDAW)
• C. Custom
• D. Precedent

Q40. [Cases] I.C. Golaknath was overruled on the FR-amendment point by:

• A. Minerva Mills
• B. Kesavananda Bharati
• C. Maneka
• D. Bommai

Q41. [Cases] ADM Jabalpur’s majority view on Art.21 during emergency was:

• A. Correct
• B. Overruled as wrong (Puttaswamy)
• C. Upheld
• D. Modified

Q42. [Cases] Kesavananda Bharati concerned the ___ Amendment(s):

• A. Only 24th
• B. 24th, 25th, 29th
• C. 42nd
• D. 44th

Q43. [Cases] Waman Rao v. Union of India settled the ___ date for Ninth Schedule protection:

• A. 1950
• B. 24 April 1973
• C. 1976
• D. 1980

Q44. [Cases] Minerva Mills struck down clauses (4) & (5) of Art.368 inserted by the:

• A. 24th
• B. 42nd
• C. 44th
• D. 1st

Q45. [Cases] Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain struck down a constitutional amendment validating an:

• A. Ordinance
• B. Election (basic structure)
• C. Tax
• D. Land law

Q46. [Cases] Maneka Gandhi’s ‘golden triangle’ links Arts. 14, 19 and:

• A. 20
• B. 21
• C. 22
• D. 25

Q47. [Cases] R.C. Cooper (Bank Nationalisation) case dealt with:

• A. Bail
• B. Property/compensation & effect on FRs
• C. Reservation
• D. Privacy

Q48. [Cases] Keshavananda’s ‘basic structure’ includes secularism, affirmed in:

• A. Bommai
• B. Golaknath
• C. Gopalan
• D. Kharak Singh

Q49. [Cases] Champakam Dorairajan led to the ___ Amendment enabling reservation:

• A. 1st
• B. 42nd
• C. 44th
• D. 93rd

Q50. [Cases] Mandal (Indra Sawhney) upheld OBC reservation but excluded the:

• A. Poor
• B. Creamy layer
• C. Women
• D. Minorities

Q51. [Cases] M.C. Mehta cases pioneered:

• A. Bail law
• B. Environmental jurisprudence & absolute liability
• C. Reservation
• D. Property

Q52. [Cases] Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum recognised the:

• A. Bail rule
• B. Precautionary principle & polluter pays
• C. Reservation
• D. Privacy

Q53. [Cases] Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar held the right to a clean environment part of:

• A. Art.19
• B. Art.21
• C. Art.14
• D. Art.300A

Q54. [Cases] Navtej Johar and Joseph Shine both advanced:

• A. Property rights
• B. Constitutional morality/individual autonomy
• C. Reservation
• D. Federalism

Q55. [Cases] Anuradha Bhasin held indefinite internet suspension violates:

• A. Art.14
• B. Art.19(1)(a) & (g)
• C. Art.21 only
• D. Art.25

Q56. [CPC] A ‘decree’ may be preliminary, final, or:

• A. Void
• B. Partly preliminary & partly final
• C. Illegal
• D. Interim

Q57. [CPC] ‘Order 21’ execution can be transferred to a court where the judgment-debtor:

• A. Was born
• B. Resides/carries on business/has property
• C. Was arrested
• D. Was tried

Q58. [CPC] ‘Notice under s.80’ can be waived by the Government or dispensed with for:

• A. No case
• B. Urgent relief (with leave)
• C. All suits
• D. None

Q59. [CPC] ‘Res judicata’ requires the former court to be a court:

• A. Of any kind
• B. Competent to try the subsequent suit
• C. Superior
• D. Inferior

Q60. [Contract] ‘Consideration’ need not be adequate — inadequacy is relevant to:

• A. Validity
• B. Whether consent was free
• C. Nothing
• D. Registration

Q61. [Contract] A ‘void’ contract creates:

• A. Rights
• B. No legal rights or obligations
• C. Voidable rights
• D. A charge

Q62. [Contract] A ‘contingent contract’ dependent on the conduct of a living person becomes impossible when he:

• A. Travels
• B. Does anything rendering it impossible
• C. Delays
• D. Refuses once

Q63. [Contract] ‘Reciprocal promises’ — the order of performance is as fixed by the contract or by the:

• A. Court
• B. Nature of the transaction
• C. Parties later
• D. Statute

Q64. [Property] A ‘lease’ vs ‘mortgage’ — a lease transfers a right to enjoy; a mortgage transfers an interest as:

• A. Ownership
• B. Security for a debt
• C. A gift
• D. A trust

Q65. [Property] ‘Fixtures’ attached to land generally pass with the:

• A. Movables
• B. Land (as immovable)
• C. Tenant
• D. Contract

Q66. [Property] ‘Doctrine of election’ requires a person taking a benefit under an instrument to:

• A. Reject it
• B. Accept the whole (confer his own property as directed)
• C. Take part
• D. Litigate

Q67. [Property] An ‘ostensible owner’ can pass good title to a bona fide transferee for value under:

• A. s.43
• B. s.41
• C. s.53A
• D. s.52

Q68. [Commercial] A ‘promissory note’ contains an unconditional undertaking to pay a:

• A. Contingent sum
• B. Certain sum of money
• C. Any amount
• D. In kind

Q69. [Commercial] A ‘cheque’ is always payable:

• A. After date
• B. On demand
• C. On acceptance
• D. At maturity

Q70. [Commercial] ‘Material alteration’ of a negotiable instrument renders it:

• A. Valid
• B. Void (except as against consenting parties)
• C. Voidable
• D. Enforceable

Q71. [Commercial] An arbitrator must disclose circumstances likely to raise:

• A. Costs
• B. Justifiable doubts as to independence/impartiality
• C. Delay
• D. Fees

Q72. [Commercial] A ‘unilateral’ appointment of a sole arbitrator by one party is:

• A. Valid
• B. Impermissible (Perkins Eastman)
• C. Encouraged
• D. Mandatory

Q73. [Commercial] ‘Emergency arbitrator’ relief is recognised in India after:

• A. No case
• B. Amazon v. Future Retail
• C. BALCO
• D. Bhatia

Q74. [Torts] ‘Negligence’ liability of a professional is judged by the ___ standard:

• A. Layman
• B. Reasonable competent professional (Bolam)
• C. Strict
• D. Absolute

Q75. [Torts] ‘Nervous shock’ claims require a recognised:

• A. Contract
• B. Psychiatric injury (foreseeable)
• C. Property loss
• D. Breach

Q76. [Torts] ‘Vicarious liability’ of the State for tortious acts of servants — sovereign functions were an exception in:

• A. Kasturilal
• B. M.C. Mehta
• C. Rylands
• D. Nilabati

Q77. [Torts] ‘Trespass to person’ includes assault, battery and:

• A. Nuisance
• B. False imprisonment
• C. Deceit
• D. Negligence

Q78. [Torts] ‘Malicious prosecution’ — the burden to prove absence of reasonable cause is on the:

• A. Defendant
• B. Plaintiff
• C. Court
• D. State

Q79. [Torts] ‘Defamation’ — a company can sue for defamation affecting its:

• A. Feelings
• B. Trading reputation
• C. Directors
• D. Employees

Q80. [Torts] ‘Remoteness’ — a defendant is liable for damage that is a ___ consequence:

• A. Direct
• B. Reasonably foreseeable
• C. Remote
• D. Any

Q81. [Jurisprudence] ‘Sanction’ in Austin’s theory is the ___ behind the command:

• A. Reward
• B. Evil/penalty for disobedience
• C. Custom
• D. Morality

Q82. [Jurisprudence] ‘Legal duty’ correlates with a legal:

• A. Liberty
• B. Right
• C. Power
• D. Immunity

Q83. [Jurisprudence] ‘Immunity’ (Hohfeld) correlates with:

• A. Power
• B. Disability
• C. Liability
• D. Duty

Q84. [Jurisprudence] ‘Custom’ becomes law when it is ancient, reasonable, continuous and:

• A. Written
• B. Not opposed to public policy/statute
• C. Registered
• D. Popular

Q85. [Jurisprudence] ‘Equity’ historically supplemented the:

• A. Statute
• B. Common law (rigours)
• C. Custom
• D. Precedent

Q86. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Rural local self-government in Chhattisgarh is under the:

• A. CG Land Revenue Code
• B. CG Panchayat Raj Adhiniyam, 1993
• C. CG Rent Act
• D. Punjab Act

Q87. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] In Scheduled Areas of Chhattisgarh, Gram Sabhas are empowered by:

• A. The Rent Act
• B. PESA, 1996
• C. The Land Revenue Code
• D. The Excise Act

Q88. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The Governor’s special responsibility for Scheduled Areas in CG is under the:

• A. Fourth Schedule
• B. Fifth Schedule
• C. Sixth Schedule
• D. Seventh Schedule

Q89. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Time-bound public services in CG are guaranteed by the:

• A. Excise Act
• B. CG Lok Sewa Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2011
• C. Rent Act
• D. Land Revenue Code

Q90. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] A revenue officer subordinate to the Tehsildar in CG is the:

• A. Collector
• B. Naib-Tehsildar
• C. Commissioner
• D. SDM

Q91. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Transfer of land of an aboriginal tribe member in CG without permission is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void/invalid
• C. Voidable
• D. Registrable

Q92. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The apex revenue authority in CG hears appeals as the:

• A. Collector
• B. Board of Revenue
• C. Tehsildar
• D. Gram Sabha

Q93. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] ‘Khatauni’ is the record of:

• A. Plots
• B. Holdings of a tenure-holder
• C. Crops
• D. Rent

Q94. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] The CG High Court became functional (bifurcation from MP) in:

• A. 1956
• B. 2000
• C. 2010
• D. 1950

Q95. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] A large part of CG lies within ___ under the Constitution:

• A. Sixth Schedule
• B. Fifth Schedule (Scheduled Areas)
• C. No schedule
• D. Fourth Schedule

Q96. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Excise/liquor regulation in CG is under the:

• A. Rent Act
• B. CG Excise Act
• C. Panchayat Act
• D. Land Revenue Code

Q97. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] ‘Diversion’ of agricultural land in CG changes the:

• A. Ownership
• B. Permitted land use (with revenue authority’s order)
• C. Title
• D. Rent

Q98. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Bar of civil court jurisdiction sends specified land disputes in CG to the:

• A. Civil court
• B. Revenue courts
• C. Consumer forum
• D. Sessions court

Q99. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] Administrative control over CG’s subordinate judiciary vests in the:

• A. State Government
• B. Chhattisgarh High Court (Art.235)
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Collector

Q100. [Chhattisgarh Local Law] A ‘bhumiswami’ in CG holds rights that are:

• A. Non-transferable
• B. Heritable & transferable (with restrictions)
• C. For life
• D. Government’s