Jharkhand HJS (District Judge) — Prelims Pattern Mock 3 (100 Questions)

Q1. [Family Law] A Muslim ‘will’ (wasiyat) can bequeath up to ___ of the estate without heirs’ consent:

• A. Half
• B. One-third
• C. Two-thirds
• D. Whole

Q2. [Family Law] The Special Marriage Act allows marriage:

• A. Only Hindus
• B. Between any two persons irrespective of religion
• C. Only Muslims
• D. Only Christians

Q3. [Jurisprudence] ‘Positive law’ (Austin) is the command of the:

• A. People
• B. Sovereign backed by sanction
• C. Judge
• D. Custom

Q4. [Jurisprudence] Bentham is associated with:

• A. Historical school
• B. Utilitarianism
• C. Realism
• D. Natural law

Q5. [Jurisprudence] ‘Living law’ concept is associated with:

• A. Ehrlich (sociological)
• B. Austin
• C. Kelsen
• D. Hart

Q6. [Jurisprudence] Duguit’s theory centres on:

• A. Command
• B. Social solidarity
• C. Grundnorm
• D. Volksgeist

Q7. [Jurisprudence] ‘Ownership’ includes the right to possess, use, manage, and:

• A. Only possess
• B. The residuary/ultimate right (subject to law)
• C. Only use
• D. Only transfer

Q8. [Jurisprudence] ‘Possession’ in fact + intention to hold is:

• A. Corpus only
• B. Corpus possessionis + animus possidendi
• C. Animus only
• D. Neither

Q9. [Jurisprudence] A ‘legal right’ correlates (Hohfeld) with a duty; a ‘liberty’ correlates with:

• A. Duty
• B. No-right
• C. Liability
• D. Disability

Q10. [Jurisprudence] ‘Precedent’ is a source of law described as:

• A. Legislation
• B. Judge-made law (stare decisis)
• C. Custom
• D. Convention

Q11. [Jurisprudence] ‘Obiter dicta’ of the Supreme Court are:

• A. Binding on all
• B. Not binding but highly persuasive
• C. Void
• D. Ignored

Q12. [Jurisprudence] ‘Casus omissus’ means a case:

• A. Decided
• B. Omitted/not provided for by the statute
• C. Barred
• D. Pending

Q13. [Jurisprudence] ‘Ut res magis valeat quam pereat’ means construe so that the statute:

• A. Fails
• B. Is effective rather than void
• C. Is repealed
• D. Is narrow

Q14. [Jurisprudence] ‘Reddendo singula singulis’ distributes words:

• A. Widely
• B. Referring each to its appropriate subject
• C. Narrowly
• D. Literally

Q15. [Jurisprudence] A ‘mandatory’ vs ‘directory’ provision — ‘shall’ is usually:

• A. Directory
• B. Mandatory (context permitting)
• C. Optional
• D. Void

Q16. [Jurisprudence] ‘Heydon’s rule’ (mischief rule) asks the court to suppress the mischief and advance the:

• A. Text
• B. Remedy
• C. Penalty
• D. Delay

Q17. [Cases] Vishaka guidelines were issued because of the absence of a:

• A. Court
• B. Statute on workplace sexual harassment
• C. Judge
• D. Rule

Q18. [Cases] S.R. Bommai v. Union of India curtailed the misuse of:

• A. Art.352
• B. Art.356 (President’s Rule)
• C. Art.360
• D. Art.368

Q19. [Cases] In Indra Sawhney, reservation was capped at ___ save extraordinary circumstances:

• A. 27%
• B. 50%
• C. 60%
• D. 33%

Q20. [Cases] Puttaswamy recognised privacy as intrinsic to Articles:

• A. 14, 19, 21
• B. 32, 226
• C. 25, 26
• D. 300A

Q21. [Cases] Shreya Singhal struck down s.66A IT Act as violating:

• A. Art.14
• B. Art.19(1)(a)
• C. Art.21
• D. Art.25

Q22. [Cases] Olga Tellis linked the right to livelihood to:

• A. Art.19
• B. Art.21
• C. Art.14
• D. Art.300A

Q23. [Cases] Bachan Singh confined the death penalty to the:

• A. Rarest of rare cases
• B. All murders
• C. Terror cases
• D. None

Q24. [Cases] D.K. Basu required a memo of arrest attested by a:

• A. Lawyer
• B. Witness (family member/respectable person)
• C. Judge
• D. Doctor

Q25. [Cases] Selvi held that involuntary narco/polygraph/BEAP tests violate:

• A. Art.14
• B. Art.20(3)
• C. Art.19
• D. Art.25

Q26. [Cases] Common Cause v. Union of India recognised:

• A. Bail
• B. Passive euthanasia & living wills
• C. Reservation
• D. Privacy

Q27. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Nemo dat quod non habet’ means:

• A. Give freely
• B. No one gives what he does not have
• C. Buyer beware
• D. Hear both

Q28. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Cessante ratione legis cessat ipsa lex’ means:

• A. Law is eternal
• B. Reason of law ceasing, the law itself ceases
• C. No remedy
• D. Strict rule

Q29. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Actio personalis moritur cum persona’ — exceptions exist under the:

• A. ICA
• B. Legal Representatives Suits Act / survival statutes
• C. TPA
• D. IPC

Q30. [Maxims/Cases] ‘Interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium’ underlies:

• A. Bail
• B. Res judicata & limitation (finality of litigation)
• C. Arrest
• D. Injunction

Q31. [Legal GK] The three new criminal codes were notified/assented in:

• A. Dec 2023
• B. Jul 2024
• C. Jan 2023
• D. Aug 2023

Q32. [Legal GK] ‘BNS’ stands for:

• A. Bharatiya Nagarik Sanhita
• B. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
• C. Bharatiya Nyaya Suraksha
• D. Bhartiya Naya Samhita

Q33. [Legal GK] ‘BNSS’ stands for:

• A. Bharatiya Nyaya Suraksha Sanhita
• B. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
• C. Bharatiya Naya Sakshya Sanhita
• D. Bhartiya Nagrik Sewa Sanhita

Q34. [Legal GK] ‘BSA’ stands for:

• A. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
• B. Bharatiya Suraksha Adhiniyam
• C. Bhartiya Samvidhan Act
• D. Bharatiya Sanhita Adhiniyam

Q35. [Legal GK] BNSS mandates supply of a copy of the FIR to the informant:

• A. On payment
• B. Free of cost
• C. Never
• D. Only on request

Q36. [Legal GK] BNSS provides for ‘trial in absentia’ of a:

• A. Witness
• B. Proclaimed absconder
• C. Victim
• D. Complainant

Q37. [Legal GK] BNS introduces the offence of ‘organised crime’ with a threshold of a:

• A. Single act
• B. Continuing unlawful activity by a syndicate
• C. Civil wrong
• D. Petty theft

Q38. [Legal GK] BSA expressly recognises ___ as primary evidence in specified circumstances:

• A. Oral
• B. Electronic/digital records
• C. Hearsay
• D. Rumour

Q39. [Legal GK] BNSS timelines aim to complete investigation of rape cases within:

• A. 7 days
• B. 2 months
• C. 6 months
• D. 1 year

Q40. [Legal GK] Forensic collection is mandatory for offences punishable with:

• A. 3 yr+
• B. 7 yr+
• C. 5 yr+
• D. 10 yr+

Q41. [Legal GK] ‘Community service’ is defined for the first time in a penal code by the:

• A. BNSS
• B. BNS
• C. BSA
• D. IT Act

Q42. [Legal GK] The Mediation Act, 2023 makes pre-litigation mediation:

• A. Compulsory always
• B. Voluntary (with institutional framework)
• C. Banned
• D. Only commercial

Q43. [Legal GK] A ‘mediated settlement agreement’ under the Mediation Act is:

• A. Advisory
• B. Enforceable as a judgment/decree
• C. Void
• D. Appealable

Q44. [Legal GK] The Commercial Courts Act mandates pre-institution mediation except where:

• A. Always mediate
• B. Urgent interim relief is sought
• C. Never
• D. Only appeals

Q45. [Legal GK] ‘Fast-track courts’ were set up primarily to reduce:

• A. Bail
• B. Pendency (esp. heinous crimes against women/children)
• C. Appeals
• D. FIRs

Q46. [Legal GK] Judicial appointments to the higher judiciary follow the ___ system:

• A. Executive
• B. Collegium
• C. Parliamentary
• D. PSC

Q47. [Legal GK] The NJAC Act was struck down in ___ for violating judicial independence:

• A. 2013
• B. 2015
• C. 2018
• D. 2020

Q48. [Legal GK] The ‘Memorandum of Procedure’ (MoP) governs:

• A. Bail
• B. Judicial appointments process
• C. Trials
• D. Arbitration

Q49. [Legal GK] The ‘doctrine of prospective overruling’ was first applied in India in:

• A. Kesavananda
• B. Golaknath
• C. Maneka
• D. Bommai

Q50. [Legal GK] ‘Continuing mandamus’ is a device used by courts to:

• A. End a case
• B. Monitor compliance over time
• C. Grant bail
• D. Award damages

Q51. [Legal GK] ‘Curative petition’ is the last resort after dismissal of a:

• A. Appeal
• B. Review petition
• C. SLP
• D. Writ

Q52. [Legal GK] A ‘Lok Adalat’ cannot decide a matter involving a:

• A. Compromisable civil dispute
• B. Non-compoundable criminal offence
• C. Cheque bounce
• D. Motor claim

Q53. [Legal GK] ‘Plea bargaining’ results in a ___ sentence on a mutually satisfactory disposition:

• A. Enhanced
• B. Reduced
• C. Death
• D. Life

Q54. [Legal GK] The ‘victim compensation scheme’ is administered by the:

• A. Court alone
• B. State/District Legal Services Authority
• C. Police
• D. Prosecutor

Q55. [Legal GK] ‘Restorative justice’ focuses on:

• A. Retribution
• B. Repairing harm & victim participation
• C. Longer jail
• D. Higher fines

Q56. [Legal GK] ‘e-FIR’ is significant because it removes the barrier of:

• A. Language
• B. Physical presence/jurisdiction to lodge
• C. Fees
• D. Evidence

Q57. [Legal GK] A public prosecutor cannot ___ without the court’s consent:

• A. Argue
• B. Withdraw from prosecution
• C. Examine witnesses
• D. File charge

Q58. [Legal GK] The ‘sunset’ of colonial-era criminal laws happened on:

• A. 15 Aug 2023
• B. 1 Jul 2024
• C. 26 Jan 2024
• D. 1 Apr 2024

Q59. [Legal GK] ‘Zero pendency’ pilot and case-management aim to enforce:

• A. Delay
• B. Timelines/fixed hearings
• C. Adjournments
• D. Backlog

Q60. [Legal GK] A ‘sessions case’ is exclusively triable by the:

• A. Magistrate
• B. Court of Session
• C. High Court
• D. Executive Magistrate

Q61. [General Studies] The Indian Constitution was adopted on:

• A. 15 Aug 1947
• B. 26 Nov 1949
• C. 26 Jan 1950
• D. 2 Oct 1950

Q62. [General Studies] The Chairman of the Drafting Committee was:

• A. Nehru
• B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
• C. Rajendra Prasad
• D. Patel

Q63. [General Studies] The idea of a Constituent Assembly was based on the:

• A. Cripps Mission
• B. Cabinet Mission Plan
• C. Mountbatten Plan
• D. Simon Commission

Q64. [General Studies] The IPC, 1860 was drafted under the chairmanship of:

• A. Macaulay
• B. Cornwallis
• C. Bentinck
• D. Hastings

Q65. [General Studies] The Indian High Courts Act was enacted in:

• A. 1861
• B. 1911
• C. 1935
• D. 1950

Q66. [General Studies] The Federal Court of India was established under the:

• A. GoI Act 1919
• B. GoI Act 1935
• C. IHC Act 1861
• D. Constitution

Q67. [General Studies] The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated in:

• A. 1937
• B. 1947
• C. 1950
• D. 1935

Q68. [General Studies] The doctrine of ‘separation of powers’ in India is:

• A. Rigid
• B. Not rigid; with checks and balances
• C. Absent
• D. Absolute

Q69. [General Studies] The ‘preamble’ has been held to be a part of the Constitution in:

• A. Berubari
• B. Kesavananda Bharati
• C. Golaknath
• D. Gopalan

Q70. [General Studies] The tenure of the Attorney-General is:

• A. Fixed 5 years
• B. During the pleasure of the President
• C. 6 years
• D. Life

Q71. [General Studies] The first Chief Justice of India was:

• A. H.J. Kania
• B. M. Patanjali Sastri
• C. B.K. Mukherjea
• D. S.R. Das

Q72. [General Studies] The ‘basic structure’ bench strength (Kesavananda) was:

• A. 9
• B. 11
• C. 13
• D. 7

Q73. [General Studies] ‘Amicus curiae’ assists the:

• A. Party
• B. Court
• C. Prosecutor
• D. Police

Q74. [General Studies] ‘Ex parte’ means proceedings in the absence of:

• A. The judge
• B. One party
• C. Witnesses
• D. The prosecutor

Q75. [General Studies] ‘Suo motu’ cognizance means the court acts:

• A. On petition
• B. On its own motion
• C. On appeal
• D. On reference

Q76. [General Studies] ‘Habeas corpus’ literally means:

• A. Let the body be produced
• B. You may have the body
• C. We command
• D. Show cause

Q77. [General Studies] ‘Ratio decidendi’ is binding under the doctrine of:

• A. Res judicata
• B. Stare decisis
• C. Estoppel
• D. Merger

Q78. [General Studies] The ‘rarest of rare’ doctrine governs the imposition of the:

• A. Fine
• B. Death penalty
• C. Life sentence
• D. Bail

Q79. [General Studies] A decision rendered without jurisdiction is a:

• A. Valid decree
• B. Nullity
• C. Precedent
• D. Res judicata

Q80. [General Studies] ‘Coram non judice’ means before a:

• A. Proper judge
• B. Judge without jurisdiction
• C. Jury
• D. Tribunal

Q81. [CPC] A suit valued for jurisdiction and for court fee may:

• A. Always be same
• B. Differ
• C. Never differ
• D. Be nil

Q82. [CPC] ‘Cause of action’ arising partly within jurisdiction allows suit under:

• A. s.15
• B. s.16
• C. s.20(c)
• D. s.9

Q83. [CPC] An ‘ex parte’ decree is one passed in the absence of the:

• A. Plaintiff
• B. Defendant
• C. Judge
• D. Witness

Q84. [CPC] ‘Restitution’ (s.144) restores a party to the position before a:

• A. Suit
• B. Decree later varied/reversed
• C. Appeal
• D. FIR

Q85. [CPC] A ‘representative suit’ (O.1 R.8) requires the court’s:

• A. Nothing
• B. Permission and notice
• C. A decree
• D. An FIR

Q86. [Jharkhand Local Law] Rural local self-government in Jharkhand is under the:

• A. CNT Act
• B. Jharkhand Panchayati Raj Act, 2001
• C. SPT Act
• D. Bengal Tenancy Act

Q87. [Jharkhand Local Law] In Scheduled Areas of Jharkhand, Gram Sabhas are empowered by:

• A. The CNT Act
• B. PESA, 1996
• C. The SPT Act
• D. The Rent Act

Q88. [Jharkhand Local Law] The constitutional body advising the Governor on tribal welfare in Scheduled Areas is the:

• A. State Cabinet
• B. Tribes Advisory Council
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. High Court

Q89. [Jharkhand Local Law] The Governor’s special powers over Scheduled Areas flow from the:

• A. Fourth Schedule
• B. Fifth Schedule
• C. Sixth Schedule
• D. Seventh Schedule

Q90. [Jharkhand Local Law] Under the CNT Act, tribal land can be leased/mortgaged only in the manner:

• A. Freely
• B. Permitted by the Act (restricted)
• C. By registration
• D. By civil decree

Q91. [Jharkhand Local Law] Restoration of illegally transferred tribal land is ordered by the:

• A. Civil Judge
• B. Deputy Commissioner/revenue authority
• C. High Court
• D. Panchayat

Q92. [Jharkhand Local Law] Land records administration in Jharkhand descends from laws of the erstwhile:

• A. Madras Presidency
• B. Bihar & Orissa
• C. Bombay Presidency
• D. Punjab

Q93. [Jharkhand Local Law] The SPT Act governs the district(s) of:

• A. Ranchi
• B. Santhal Pargana division
• C. Kolhan
• D. Palamu

Q94. [Jharkhand Local Law] ‘Pargana’ and ‘Manki-Munda’ systems are traditional ___ institutions:

• A. Judicial/self-governance (tribal)
• B. Revenue only
• C. Municipal
• D. Police

Q95. [Jharkhand Local Law] Transfer of raiyati land of an ST to a non-ST without permission is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void and liable to restoration
• C. Voidable
• D. Registrable

Q96. [Jharkhand Local Law] The High Court of Jharkhand was established (bifurcation from Bihar) in:

• A. 1912
• B. 1950
• C. 2000
• D. 2010

Q97. [Jharkhand Local Law] A ‘raiyat’ pays rent to and holds land under the:

• A. Tenant
• B. Landlord/State
• C. Municipality
• D. Company

Q98. [Jharkhand Local Law] The primary object of PESA + CNT/SPT together is:

• A. Industrialisation
• B. Protecting tribal land & self-governance
• C. Urban housing
• D. Revenue

Q99. [Jharkhand Local Law] Administrative control over Jharkhand’s subordinate judiciary vests in the:

• A. State Government
• B. Jharkhand High Court (Art.235)
• C. Deputy Commissioner
• D. TAC

Q100. [Jharkhand Local Law] ‘Bhuinhari’ tenure is a form of ___ land tenure in the region:

• A. Urban
• B. Aboriginal/original-settler
• C. Municipal
• D. Government