MP HJS (District Judge) — Prelims Pattern Mock 4 (100 Questions)

Q1. [CPC] The doctrine of res judicata under Section 11 CPC bars the trial of a suit or issue in which the matter has been:

• A. Directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties and finally decided
• B. Merely incidentally raised without any finding
• C. Left undecided by a compromise decree
• D. Withdrawn with liberty to file a fresh suit

Q2. [CPC] Under Section 14 CPC, on production of a certified copy of a foreign judgment, the court shall presume that:

• A. The judgment is on the merits
• B. The judgment was pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction
• C. The judgment is executable in India
• D. The parties consented to the foreign court

Q3. [CPC] Set-off claimed under Order 8 Rule 6 CPC must relate to an ascertained sum of money legally recoverable and:

• A. May exceed the pecuniary limits of the court’s jurisdiction
• B. Must not exceed the pecuniary limits of the court’s jurisdiction
• C. Need not be for a money claim
• D. Must arise from a different transaction only

Q4. [CPC] An interpleader suit under Section 88 and Order 35 CPC is one where:

• A. The plaintiff claims the subject matter for himself
• B. Two or more persons claim adversely to one another the same debt or property from a person who claims no interest except charges
• C. The State is a necessary party
• D. A minor is the sole plaintiff

Q5. [CPC] Revisional jurisdiction under Section 115 CPC may be exercised where the subordinate court has:

• A. Decided a question of fact wrongly
• B. Exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise jurisdiction vested, or acted illegally or with material irregularity
• C. Passed a decree the High Court disagrees with
• D. Delayed the trial

Q6. [CPC] A first appeal from an original decree lies under Section 96 CPC, and no appeal lies from a decree passed by the court with the consent of parties by virtue of:

• A. Section 96(2)
• B. Section 96(3)
• C. Section 97
• D. Section 100A

Q7. [CPC] Under Order 41 Rule 33 CPC, the appellate court’s power to pass any decree it thinks fit:

• A. Is limited strictly to the appellant’s grievance
• B. May be exercised in favour of all or any of the respondents although they may not have filed an appeal or cross-objection
• C. Cannot touch non-appealing parties
• D. Applies only in second appeals

Q8. [CPC] Under Section 60 CPC, which of the following is exempt from attachment and sale in execution?

• A. The judgment-debtor’s motor car
• B. Tools of artisans and, in the case of an agriculturist, his implements of husbandry
• C. Bank deposits of the debtor
• D. Shares held by the debtor

Q9. [CPC] A precept under Section 46 CPC is an order issued by the court which passed the decree to another court to attach property, and it remains in force for a period not exceeding:

• A. Fifteen days
• B. One month
• C. Two months
• D. Three months

Q10. [CPC] The marriage of a female party to a suit under Order 22 Rule 7 CPC:

• A. Causes the suit to abate
• B. Does not cause the suit to abate; the decree may be executed against the husband in stated circumstances
• C. Requires the husband to be substituted before hearing
• D. Stays the suit until consent of the husband

Q11. [CPC] An issue is said to arise under Order 14 Rule 1 CPC when a material proposition of fact or law is:

• A. Admitted by both parties
• B. Affirmed by one party and denied by the other
• C. Left to the court’s discretion
• D. Withdrawn by the plaintiff

Q12. [Limitation] Under Section 5 of the Limitation Act 1963, condonation of delay is available for appeals and applications but NOT for:

• A. Applications under Order 21 CPC (execution), which are expressly excluded
• B. First appeals
• C. Revision petitions
• D. Review applications

Q13. [Limitation] Under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, a written acknowledgement of liability signed before the expiration of the prescribed period has the effect of:

• A. Extinguishing the right altogether
• B. Starting a fresh period of limitation from the date of the acknowledgement
• C. Adding thirty days to the period
• D. Barring the remedy permanently

Q14. [Limitation] Section 14 of the Limitation Act allows exclusion of time spent in prosecuting, with due diligence and good faith, another civil proceeding in a court which is unable to entertain it due to:

• A. Wrong appreciation of evidence
• B. Defect of jurisdiction or other cause of a like nature
• C. Delay by the party
• D. Absence of the advocate

Q15. [Specific Relief] After the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act 2018, specific performance of a contract under Section 10 of the Act is:

• A. Purely discretionary as before
• B. Enforceable by the court, subject to the provisions of Sections 11(2), 14 and 16, i.e. no longer a matter of unfettered discretion
• C. Available only where damages are inadequate
• D. Abolished altogether

Q16. [Specific Relief] Under Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act (as amended), which of the following contracts CANNOT be specifically enforced?

• A. A contract for sale of a specific immovable property
• B. A contract the performance of which involves the performance of a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise
• C. A contract to convey a rare painting
• D. A contract to lease land

Q17. [Specific Relief] Rectification of an instrument under Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act is available where, through fraud or a mutual mistake of the parties, the instrument does not:

• A. Bear a stamp
• B. Express their real intention
• C. Get registered
• D. Contain a penalty clause

Q18. [Specific Relief] A declaratory decree under Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act may be granted to any person entitled to any legal character or right to property, but the court shall not make such declaration where the plaintiff, being able to seek further relief, omits to do so, this being the:

• A. Doctrine of merger
• B. Proviso to Section 34 barring bare declarations where consequential relief is available
• C. Rule of res judicata
• D. Doctrine of election

Q19. [Specific Relief] Which of the following is a ground under Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act on which an injunction shall NOT be granted?

• A. Where the conduct of the plaintiff has been such as to disentitle him to the assistance of the court
• B. Where the plaintiff has a prima facie case
• C. Where the balance of convenience favours the plaintiff
• D. Where irreparable injury is shown

Q20. [BNS 2023] The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 came into force replacing the Indian Penal Code with effect from which date?

• A. 1 January 2024
• B. 1 April 2024
• C. 1 July 2024
• D. 15 August 2024

Q21. [BNS 2023] Under the necessity exception, an act likely to cause harm done without criminal intention to prevent other harm to person or property is not an offence if the harm was done:

• A. To gain profit
• B. In good faith to prevent or avoid greater harm
• C. Out of revenge
• D. Under provocation

Q22. [BNS 2023] Involuntary intoxication, where a person is intoxicated by something administered without his knowledge or against his will, may be a defence if at that time he was:

• A. Above the age of eighteen
• B. Incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that it was wrong
• C. A first-time offender
• D. Provoked

Q23. [BNS 2023] The right of private defence in no case extends to inflicting more harm than:

• A. The value of property involved
• B. It is necessary to inflict for the purpose of defence
• C. The assailant intended
• D. A reasonable person would fear

Q24. [BNS 2023] The key distinction between common intention and common object is that common object:

• A. Requires a prior concert of minds
• B. Can be formed on the spot and does not require prior meeting of minds among five or more
• C. Applies to only two persons
• D. Requires a written agreement

Q25. [BNS 2023] Culpable homicide becomes murder under BNS, subject to the exceptions, where the act is done with:

• A. Rash negligence only
• B. The intention of causing death or such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause death, among other clauses
• C. Consent of the victim
• D. No intention at all

Q26. [BNS 2023] Hurt under BNS means causing bodily pain, disease or infirmity, whereas grievous hurt is a defined category that includes:

• A. Any temporary pain
• B. Emasculation, permanent loss of sight or hearing, fracture, and other enumerated injuries
• C. Verbal abuse
• D. Trespass

Q27. [BNS 2023] BNS introduces a specific provision for murder or grievous hurt by a group of five or more persons acting on grounds such as race, caste, community, sex, or language, commonly described as:

• A. Affray
• B. Mob lynching
• C. Dacoity
• D. Sedition

Q28. [BNS 2023] Extortion involves intentionally putting a person in fear of injury and thereby dishonestly inducing the person so put in fear to:

• A. Move away from a place
• B. Deliver property, valuable security, or anything signed which may be converted into a valuable security
• C. Sign a marriage register
• D. Confess to a crime

Q29. [BNS 2023] Mischief is committed when a person, with intent or knowledge that he is likely to cause wrongful loss or damage to the public or any person, causes:

• A. Only physical injury
• B. Destruction of property or such change in it as destroys or diminishes its value or utility
• C. Defamation
• D. Criminal intimidation

Q30. [BNS 2023] Defamation under BNS is committed by making or publishing any imputation concerning a person intending to harm, or knowing it will harm, the:

• A. Property of that person
• B. Reputation of that person
• C. Health of that person
• D. Employment of that person only

Q31. [BNS 2023] Rioting is committed when force or violence is used by:

• A. A single person against another
• B. An unlawful assembly, or any member thereof, in prosecution of the common object
• C. Two persons in a private dispute
• D. A public servant on duty

Q32. [BNSS 2023] The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 replaced which enactment governing criminal procedure?

• A. The Indian Penal Code
• B. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
• C. The Indian Evidence Act
• D. The Criminal Law Amendment Act

Q33. [BNSS 2023] A person arrested without warrant must ordinarily be produced before the nearest Magistrate within:

• A. Six hours
• B. Twelve hours
• C. Twenty-four hours excluding journey time
• D. Seventy-two hours

Q34. [BNSS 2023] A court which has granted bail may, on adequate grounds such as breach of conditions or interference with witnesses, order the:

• A. Automatic conviction
• B. Cancellation of bail and arrest of the person
• C. Payment of compensation
• D. Transfer of the case

Q35. [BNSS 2023] A trial before a Court of Session is conducted by a public prosecutor and commences after the case is:

• A. Directly filed in the sessions court
• B. Committed to it by a Magistrate, the Court of Session not ordinarily taking direct cognizance
• C. Withdrawn by the police
• D. Compounded by the parties

Q36. [BNSS 2023] BNSS provides that a charge shall be framed within a fixed period after the first hearing on the charge, that period being:

• A. Thirty days
• B. Sixty days
• C. Ninety days
• D. One hundred and twenty days

Q37. [BNSS 2023] Security for keeping the peace and for good behaviour empowers a Magistrate to require a person to execute a bond, and this preventive jurisdiction is directed at:

• A. Punishing past offences
• B. Preventing apprehended breaches of the peace or offences by requiring a bond with or without sureties
• C. Recovering fines
• D. Granting bail

Q38. [BNSS 2023] In the hierarchy of criminal courts under BNSS, the highest court of trial and appeal below the High Court in a sessions division is the:

• A. Court of Judicial Magistrate of the first class
• B. Court of Session
• C. Court of the Metropolitan Magistrate
• D. Executive Magistrate’s court

Q39. [Evidence/BSA] Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, facts forming part of the same transaction as a fact in issue are relevant on the principle known as:

• A. Alibi
• B. Res gestae
• C. Estoppel
• D. Autrefois acquit

Q40. [Evidence/BSA] In a civil case under the BSA, evidence of the good or bad character of a party is:

• A. Always relevant
• B. Generally irrelevant unless it affects damages or such character is itself in issue
• C. Conclusive proof
• D. Presumed

Q41. [Evidence/BSA] An admission, under the BSA, is:

• A. Conclusive proof of the matter admitted
• B. Not conclusive but may operate as an estoppel or be proved against the maker
• C. Always irrelevant
• D. A privileged communication

Q42. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, no particular number of witnesses is required for proof of any fact; this reflects the principle that evidence is:

• A. Counted
• B. Weighed, not counted
• C. Always corroborated
• D. Presumed

Q43. [Evidence/BSA] When the BSA declares a fact to be ‘conclusive proof’ of another, the court:

• A. May allow evidence to disprove it
• B. Shall regard the one as proved and not allow evidence to disprove it
• C. Must presume it rebuttable
• D. Ignores it

Q44. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, the burden of proof in a suit or proceeding lies on the person who:

• A. Is the defendant always
• B. Would fail if no evidence at all were given on either side
• C. Is wealthier
• D. Called the first witness

Q45. [Evidence/BSA] Facts showing the existence of any state of mind such as intention, knowledge, good faith or ill-will are, under the BSA, relevant when:

• A. Never
• B. Such state of mind is in issue or relevant
• C. Only in civil cases
• D. Only against the accused

Q46. [Evidence/BSA] Re-examination of a witness, under the BSA, shall ordinarily be directed to:

• A. Introducing entirely new matter freely
• B. Explanation of matters referred to in cross-examination
• C. Impeaching the witness
• D. Leading the witness on new facts

Q47. [Evidence/BSA] The competency of a witness under the BSA is not barred by tender age or old age unless the person is prevented from understanding the questions or giving rational answers by reason of:

• A. Poverty
• B. Tender years, extreme old age, disease or the like preventing understanding
• C. Being a stranger
• D. Being related to a party

Q48. [Constitution] The words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ were inserted into the Preamble by the:

• A. First Amendment
• B. 42nd Amendment, 1976
• C. 44th Amendment
• D. 1st Schedule

Q49. [Constitution] Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws; permissible classification under it must be founded on an intelligible differential having a rational nexus to:

• A. Any purpose
• B. The object sought to be achieved
• C. The legislature’s convenience
• D. Administrative ease alone

Q50. [Constitution] Article 16(4) enables the State to make provision for reservation in appointments in favour of any backward class not adequately represented in:

• A. Private employment
• B. The services under the State
• C. Foreign missions
• D. Cooperative societies

Q51. [Constitution] Article 21A, inserted by the 86th Amendment, provides for free and compulsory education to all children of the age of:

• A. 3 to 10 years
• B. 6 to 14 years
• C. 5 to 12 years
• D. 6 to 18 years

Q52. [Constitution] Under Article 29(1), any section of citizens having a distinct language, script or culture has the right to:

• A. Secede
• B. Conserve the same
• C. Levy cess
• D. Frame its own penal code

Q53. [Constitution] Certiorari and prohibition differ chiefly in that prohibition is issued when the proceedings are:

• A. Concluded
• B. Still pending, to prevent a body from exceeding its jurisdiction
• C. Criminal only
• D. Civil only

Q54. [Constitution] In Minerva Mills v. Union of India, the Court struck down parts of the 42nd Amendment for damaging the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, treating that balance as part of the:

• A. Ninth Schedule
• B. Basic structure
• C. Emergency provisions
• D. Union List

Q55. [Constitution] A Judge of a High Court holds office until the age of:

• A. 60 years
• B. 62 years
• C. 65 years
• D. 58 years

Q56. [Constitution] The distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States is set out in the:

• A. Fourth Schedule
• B. Seventh Schedule
• C. Ninth Schedule
• D. Tenth Schedule

Q57. [Constitution] Under Article 368, certain amendments require, in addition to a special majority of Parliament, ratification by the legislatures of not less than:

• A. Half of the States
• B. One-third of the States
• C. All the States
• D. Two-thirds of the States

Q58. [Constitution] Where a State law and a Union law on a Concurrent List subject are repugnant, Article 254 provides that, subject to exceptions, the:

• A. State law prevails
• B. Union law prevails and the State law is void to the extent of repugnancy
• C. Both are void
• D. Court chooses

Q59. [Contract] Consideration under the Indian Contract Act may proceed from:

• A. The promisee only
• B. The promisee or any other person
• C. A stranger to the transaction only
• D. The promisor alone

Q60. [Contract] An agreement by a minor is:

• A. Voidable at the minor’s option
• B. Void ab initio
• C. Valid if ratified on majority
• D. Enforceable against the minor only

Q61. [Contract] A false statement made knowingly or without belief in its truth, with intent to deceive, amounts to:

• A. Misrepresentation
• B. Fraud
• C. Coercion
• D. Mistake of fact

Q62. [Contract] An agreement in restraint of trade is, under Section 27:

• A. Valid to a reasonable extent
• B. Void to the extent of the restraint
• C. Voidable at the buyer’s option
• D. Valid if in writing

Q63. [Contract] A contingent contract to do something if an uncertain future event does not happen can be enforced when:

• A. The event happens
• B. The happening of that event becomes impossible
• C. The contract is signed
• D. The parties agree

Q64. [Contract] A contract that is based on the personal skill or qualification of the promisor:

• A. Must be performed by the promisor himself
• B. May be performed by any competent representative
• C. Can be assigned freely
• D. Devolves on the legal heirs

Q65. [Contract] Where a sum is named in a contract as payable on breach, or a penalty stipulated, the aggrieved party under Section 74 is entitled to:

• A. The full stipulated sum in every case
• B. Reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount named
• C. Nothing
• D. Double the amount named

Q66. [Contract] A guarantee that extends to a series of transactions is called a:

• A. Specific guarantee
• B. Continuing guarantee
• C. Retrospective guarantee
• D. Conditional guarantee

Q67. [Contract] A bailee who has, in accordance with the purpose of the bailment, expended labour or skill on the goods has:

• A. A particular lien on those goods
• B. A general lien on all goods
• C. No lien
• D. Ownership of the goods

Q68. [Contract] An agent is bound to conduct the business of his principal according to:

• A. His own discretion in every case
• B. The directions given by the principal, or the custom prevailing in similar business
• C. The wishes of third parties
• D. The creditor’s directions

Q69. [Property] A condition absolutely restraining the transferee from parting with or disposing of his interest in the property is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void
• C. Voidable
• D. Valid if reasonable

Q70. [Property] A transfer by an ostensible owner, made with the express or implied consent of the real owner, for consideration, is protected under Section 41 provided the transferee:

• A. Acts in good faith after taking reasonable care to ascertain the transferor’s power
• B. Knows the transferor is not the owner
• C. Pays no consideration
• D. Is a relative of the owner

Q71. [Property] Sale of tangible immovable property of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards can be made only by:

• A. An oral agreement
• B. A registered instrument
• C. Mere delivery of possession
• D. A promissory note

Q72. [Property] A usufructuary mortgage is one where the mortgagor delivers possession and authorises the mortgagee to:

• A. Sell the property immediately
• B. Retain possession and receive rents and profits in lieu of interest or principal
• C. Foreclose the mortgage
• D. Gift the property

Q73. [Property] The right of a subsequent mortgagee to have the prior mortgagee satisfy his claim first out of property not mortgaged to the former is the doctrine of:

• A. Contribution
• B. Marshalling under Section 81
• C. Subrogation
• D. Consolidation

Q74. [Property] In the absence of a contract to the contrary, a lease of immovable property for agricultural or manufacturing purposes is deemed to be:

• A. A lease from month to month
• B. A lease from year to year, terminable by six months’ notice
• C. A lease at will
• D. A perpetual lease

Q75. [Property] A gift under Section 122 is the transfer of certain existing property made:

• A. For consideration
• B. Voluntarily and without consideration, and accepted by or on behalf of the donee
• C. By way of loan
• D. Under compulsion

Q76. [Property] The transfer of an actionable claim under Section 130 must be effected by:

• A. Delivery of possession
• B. An instrument in writing signed by the transferor or his agent
• C. An oral agreement
• D. Registration alone

Q77. [Property] On a transfer of immovable property, unless a different intention is expressed, there passes to the transferee all the interest which the transferor is then capable of passing, together with:

• A. Only the bare land
• B. The legal incidents of the property, such as easements and rents accruing after the transfer
• C. Nothing beyond possession
• D. The transferor’s personal debts

Q78. [Torts] The principle of absolute liability was laid down in India in:

• A. Donoghue v Stevenson
• B. M.C. Mehta v Union of India (Oleum Gas)
• C. Rylands v Fletcher
• D. Ryan v Youngs

Q79. [Torts] Composite negligence arises where:

• A. Only the plaintiff is negligent
• B. Two or more persons’ negligence causes a single injury to the plaintiff
• C. There is no negligence at all
• D. The defendant alone is negligent

Q80. [Torts] The tort of malicious prosecution requires the plaintiff to prove all except:

• A. Prosecution by the defendant
• B. Absence of reasonable and probable cause
• C. Malice
• D. That the plaintiff was in fact guilty

Q81. [Torts] Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 the pecuniary jurisdiction of the District Commission is up to:

• A. Rupees fifty lakh
• B. Rupees one crore
• C. Rupees two crore
• D. Rupees ten crore

Q82. [Commercial] A ‘holder in due course’ under the NI Act is one who obtains the instrument:

• A. Gratuitously and after maturity
• B. For consideration, in good faith, before maturity, without notice of defect
• C. By theft
• D. After dishonour with notice

Q83. [Commercial] The ‘seat’ of arbitration primarily determines:

• A. Only the physical hearing venue
• B. The law governing the arbitration and supervisory jurisdiction
• C. The nationality of arbitrators
• D. The language of pleadings

Q84. [Commercial] Appeals from orders of the NCLT under the IBC lie to the:

• A. High Court
• B. NCLAT
• C. District Court
• D. Supreme Court directly

Q85. [Commercial] Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 a stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract, breach of which gives only a right to damages, is a:

• A. Condition
• B. Warranty
• C. Guarantee
• D. Covenant

Q86. [MP Local Law] Under the MP Land Revenue Code, 1959, restrictions on transfer of a Bhumiswami belonging to an aboriginal tribe are contained in:

• A. Section 165
• B. Section 170B
• C. Section 168
• D. Section 190

Q87. [MP Local Law] Reversion to the State of land of a member of an aboriginal tribe transferred in contravention of the Code is dealt with under:

• A. Section 170
• B. Section 170B
• C. Section 158
• D. Section 246

Q88. [MP Local Law] The principal ground for eviction of a tenant under the MP Accommodation Control Act, 1961 available to a landlord is:

• A. Change of ownership
• B. Bona fide requirement for own occupation
• C. Rent revision
• D. Age of building

Q89. [MP Local Law] The highest class of tenure-holder holding land with heritable and transferable rights under the MP Land Revenue Code is the:

• A. Occupancy tenant
• B. Bhumiswami
• C. Government lessee
• D. Shikmi

Q90. [MP Local Law] ‘Diversion’ of agricultural land to non-agricultural use under the MP Land Revenue Code requires:

• A. No permission
• B. Permission of the competent revenue authority
• C. A civil decree
• D. A gram sabha vote

Q91. [MP Local Law] The apex revenue court in Madhya Pradesh hearing final revenue appeals/revisions is the:

• A. High Court
• B. Board of Revenue
• C. Commissioner
• D. Collector

Q92. [MP Local Law] Ceiling on agricultural holdings in Madhya Pradesh is imposed by the:

• A. MP Accommodation Control Act
• B. MP Ceiling on Agricultural Holdings Act, 1960
• C. MP Land Revenue Code alone
• D. MP Excise Act

Q93. [MP Local Law] A ‘patwari’ in MP maintains field records and is supervised in his circle by the:

• A. Collector
• B. Revenue Inspector
• C. Commissioner
• D. Sub-Divisional Officer

Q94. [MP Local Law] Partition of a holding among co-Bhumiswamis is effected by the:

• A. Civil court only
• B. Tehsildar/Sub-Divisional Officer (revenue court)
• C. Gram Panchayat
• D. Board of Revenue directly

Q95. [MP Local Law] Determination of standard rent and eviction disputes under the MP Accommodation Control Act are triable by the:

• A. Rent Controlling Authority as designated / Civil Court
• B. Sessions Court
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Tehsildar

Q96. [MP Local Law] The intermediary tier of revenue administration between the Collector and the Board of Revenue in MP is the:

• A. Naib-Tehsildar
• B. Commissioner of a Division
• C. Patwari
• D. Kotwar

Q97. [MP Local Law] Nistar rights (rights to graze, take wood etc. from unoccupied land) in MP are regulated under the:

• A. MP Excise Act
• B. MP Land Revenue Code (nistar patrak)
• C. MP Rent Act
• D. Panchayat Act

Q98. [MP Local Law] Rural service delivery of records like the khasra/khatauni to a landholder is a service covered by the:

• A. MP Excise Act
• B. MP Lok Sewaon Ke Pradan Ki Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2010
• C. Rent Act
• D. Ceiling Act

Q99. [MP Local Law] An ‘occupancy tenant’ under the MP Land Revenue Code holds land under a Bhumiswami with rights that are:

• A. Fully transferable like a Bhumiswami
• B. Heritable but restrictedly transferable
• C. For one crop only
• D. Purely at will

Q100. [MP Local Law] The three-tier Panchayati Raj in MP (Gram Panchayat, Janpad Panchayat, Zila Panchayat) is constituted under the:

• A. MP Land Revenue Code
• B. MP Panchayat Raj Avam Gram Swaraj Adhiniyam, 1993
• C. MP Nagar Palika Act
• D. MP Rent Act