Jharkhand HJS (District Judge) — Prelims Pattern Mock 5 (100 Questions)

Q1. [CPC] Under Order 2 Rule 2(3) CPC, a plaintiff who is entitled to more than one relief in respect of the same cause of action but omits to sue for one such relief, may sue for the omitted relief only if:

• A. The court orders a fresh suit
• B. He obtains the leave of the court
• C. The defendant consents in writing
• D. The omitted relief exceeds the pecuniary jurisdiction

Q2. [CPC] Under Order 7 Rule 11(b) CPC, a plaint is liable to rejection where the relief claimed is undervalued and the plaintiff, on being required by the court to correct the valuation within a time fixed, fails to do so. In such case the court:

• A. Returns the plaint
• B. Rejects the plaint
• C. Stays the suit
• D. Refers the matter to a Commissioner

Q3. [CPC] Under Order 11 Rule 21 CPC, where a party fails to comply with an order to answer interrogatories or for discovery or inspection of documents, the consequence for a defaulting plaintiff is that the suit is liable to be:

• A. Adjourned sine die
• B. Dismissed for want of prosecution
• C. Decreed in his favour
• D. Stayed until compliance

Q4. [CPC] Under Order 18 Rule 17 CPC, the court may at any stage of a suit recall any witness who has been examined and put such questions to him as the court thinks fit. This power is intended to be exercised:

• A. At the instance of a party as a matter of right to fill lacunae
• B. By the court to clarify any point that has remained obscure, not to help a party fill gaps
• C. Only before cross-examination is completed
• D. Only in appeals and revisions

Q5. [CPC] An order made under Order 21 Rule 58 CPC adjudicating a claim or objection to attachment shall, under sub-rule (4):

• A. Be open to challenge only by a separate suit
• B. Have the same force and be subject to the same conditions as to appeal as if it were a decree
• C. Not be appealable at all
• D. Be final and conclusive without any remedy

Q6. [CPC] Under Order 22 Rule 4 CPC, where one of two or more defendants dies and the right to sue does not survive against the surviving defendants alone, and no application for substitution of the legal representative is made within the time limited by law, the suit:

• A. Continues against the surviving defendants
• B. Abates as against the deceased defendant
• C. Is dismissed against all defendants
• D. Is stayed until an heir is traced

Q7. [CPC] Explanation IV to Section 11 CPC embodies the principle of constructive res judicata, which provides that any matter which might and ought to have been made a ground of defence or attack in the former suit:

• A. May be raised in any subsequent suit freely
• B. Shall be deemed to have been a matter directly and substantially in issue in that suit
• C. Can be litigated only with leave of the court
• D. Is barred only if expressly raised earlier

Q8. [CPC] Section 94 CPC (supplemental proceedings) enables the court, in order to prevent the ends of justice from being defeated, to (among other things):

• A. Grant a temporary injunction and, in case of disobedience, commit the person guilty to civil prison and order that his property be attached and sold
• B. Pass a final decree without trial
• C. Refer every matter to arbitration
• D. Waive court fees at its discretion

Q9. [CPC] An application for the transfer of a suit, appeal or other proceeding from a High Court in one State to a High Court in another State is governed by Section 25 CPC, and is decided by:

• A. The District Court concerned
• B. The Supreme Court of India
• C. The concerned State Government
• D. The Law Commission

Q10. [CPC] Under Section 6 CPC, save as otherwise expressly provided, no court shall have jurisdiction over suits the amount or value of the subject-matter of which:

• A. Falls below the minimum limit fixed for it
• B. Exceeds the pecuniary limits (if any) of its ordinary jurisdiction
• C. Is in dispute between the parties
• D. Cannot be readily ascertained

Q11. [CPC] Under Order 6 Rule 15 CPC, every pleading shall be verified at the foot by the party or by one of the parties or by some other person acquainted with the facts, and the amended provision further requires the pleading to be accompanied by:

• A. A certificate of the advocate
• B. An affidavit in support of the pleadings
• C. A cash deposit
• D. A no-objection from the opposite party

Q12. [Limitation] Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963, permits the admission of an appeal or application after the prescribed period if the appellant or applicant satisfies the court that he had sufficient cause for not preferring it in time. The expression ‘sufficient cause’ is to be construed:

• A. Strictly, so as to defeat stale claims
• B. Liberally, so as to advance substantial justice, provided the party has acted bona fide and without negligence
• C. So as to condone every delay as of right
• D. Only where the delay is under thirty days

Q13. [Limitation] Under Section 17(1) of the Limitation Act, 1963, where a suit or application is based upon the fraud of the defendant, or the right of action is concealed by fraud, or the suit is for relief from the consequences of a mistake, the period of limitation shall not begin to run until:

• A. The suit is finally instituted
• B. The plaintiff or applicant has discovered the fraud or mistake, or could, with reasonable diligence, have discovered it
• C. The defendant admits the fraud
• D. Three years from the transaction

Q14. [Limitation] Article 113 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, is the residuary article prescribing a period of three years for any suit for which no period of limitation is provided elsewhere in the Schedule, running from the time when:

• A. The plaint is presented
• B. The right to sue accrues
• C. The defendant is served
• D. The cause of action is denied

Q15. [Specific Relief] Under Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a person having possession or control of a particular article of movable property, of which he is not the owner, may be compelled to deliver it to the person entitled to its immediate possession where, among other cases:

• A. The thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the claimant
• B. The claimant is willing to pay its market value
• C. The article is of a commercial nature
• D. The defendant is a minor

Q16. [Specific Relief] Under Section 14(a) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (post-2018), a contract cannot be specifically enforced where a party to the contract has obtained:

• A. Substituted performance of the contract in accordance with the provisions of section 20
• B. Damages in a prior suit
• C. An injunction against the other party
• D. A declaration of title

Q17. [Specific Relief] Section 20B of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (inserted in 2018), empowers the State Government, in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court, to designate:

• A. One or more Civil Courts as Special Courts to try suits under the Act in respect of infrastructure projects
• B. A separate tribunal for all specific-performance suits
• C. Commercial Appellate Divisions
• D. Lok Adalats for such disputes

Q18. [Specific Relief] Under Section 28 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, where in a suit for specific performance of a contract for the sale or lease of immovable property a decree is made and the purchaser or lessee does not, within the period allowed, pay the purchase-money, the vendor or lessor may apply in the same suit:

• A. For a fresh trial
• B. To have the contract rescinded
• C. For compensation only
• D. To transfer the suit

Q19. [Specific Relief] Under Section 41(e) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, an injunction cannot be granted to prevent the breach of a contract:

• A. The performance of which would not be specifically enforced
• B. Relating to immovable property
• C. For personal service in all cases
• D. Which is in writing

Q20. [BNS 2023] In BNS section 3 general explanations, the word ‘act’ denotes

• A. A single act only
• B. As well a series of acts as a single act
• C. Only lawful acts
• D. Only completed acts

Q21. [BNS 2023] Culpable homicide is not murder under BNS if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of

• A. Only the person who gave the provocation
• B. The person who gave provocation or any other by mistake or accident
• C. Only a stranger
• D. Only a public servant

Q22. [BNS 2023] Causing death by a rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide is punished more severely under BNS where death is caused by

• A. Rash and negligent driving with the offender escaping without reporting to police or Magistrate
• B. Any medical procedure
• C. A defective product
• D. A single careless act

Q23. [BNS 2023] BNS creates a specific offence for voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of

• A. A firearm
• B. Acid
• C. A vehicle
• D. A blunt weapon

Q24. [BNS 2023] ‘Wrongful confinement’ under BNS is wrongful restraint of a person in such manner as to prevent him from proceeding beyond

• A. Any direction whatsoever
• B. Certain circumscribing limits
• C. His own house
• D. A public road

Q25. [BNS 2023] A key distinction between kidnapping and abduction under BNS is that abduction

• A. Is only against minors
• B. Is a continuing offence and consent of the abducted person is material
• C. Requires crossing the border
• D. Cannot involve force

Q26. [BNS 2023] Under BNS, moving an obstacle to the taking of property, or severing a thing from anything to which it was attached, in order to take it, amounts to

• A. No offence until removal is complete
• B. A movement causing the property to be moved for theft
• C. Only mischief
• D. Criminal trespass

Q27. [BNS 2023] ‘Criminal misappropriation’ under BNS differs from ‘criminal breach of trust’ in that misappropriation involves

• A. A pre-existing entrustment of property
• B. Innocent or neutral coming into possession followed by dishonest conversion
• C. Use of force
• D. Five or more persons

Q28. [BNS 2023] ‘Cheating by personation’ under BNS is committed by cheating by pretending to be some other person, or knowingly substituting one person for another, or representing that he or another is a person he is not, and it is immaterial whether the person personated is

• A. Real or imaginary
• B. Only a real person
• C. Only a living person
• D. A public servant

Q29. [BNS 2023] ‘House-breaking’ under BNS involves house-trespass effected by any of the enumerated modes such as entry through a passage not intended for human entrance, or

• A. Entry through an open door left open by the owner
• B. Making an opening or scaling a wall for the purpose of trespass
• C. Entry with a key given by the owner
• D. Walking through an open gate

Q30. [BNS 2023] BNS defines a ‘terrorist act’ as an act done with intent to threaten the unity, integrity, security, or economic security of the country or to strike terror in the people, and it may be committed by use of

• A. Only firearms
• B. Bombs, dynamite, explosive or inflammable substances, firearms or hazardous substances
• C. Only cyber means
• D. Only chemical means

Q31. [BNS 2023] In the BNS chapter on offences against women, a man who by deceitful means obtains sexual intercourse by a false promise of marriage or of employment or promotion is guilty of an offence, and ‘deceitful means’ includes

• A. A genuine but broken promise
• B. A false promise of marriage or of employment or by suppressing identity
• C. An honest engagement
• D. A promise later fulfilled

Q32. [BNSS 2023] A ‘Zero FIR’ concept, now given statutory backing by BNSS, allows an FIR to be registered

• A. Only by the police station having territorial jurisdiction
• B. Irrespective of the area where the offence is committed, then transferred to the jurisdictional station
• C. Only after a Magistrate’s order
• D. Only for non-cognizable offences

Q33. [BNSS 2023] Under BNSS, a search warrant may be issued by a court where it has reason to believe a person will not or would not produce a document or thing, and a general search warrant may also issue where

• A. The document belongs to the accused
• B. The court is unaware who holds the document or thing
• C. The offence is bailable
• D. A police report is filed

Q34. [BNSS 2023] Under BNSS, the default-bail period for completion of investigation in offences other than those attracting the ninety-day rule is

• A. Fifteen days
• B. Thirty days
• C. Sixty days
• D. One hundred days

Q35. [BNSS 2023] An Executive Magistrate under BNSS may require a person to execute a bond for keeping the peace where he is informed that the person is likely to

• A. Commit a civil wrong
• B. Commit a breach of the peace or disturb the public tranquillity
• C. Default on a loan
• D. Leave the jurisdiction

Q36. [BNSS 2023] When framing a charge in a warrant case under BNSS, if upon consideration the Judge or Magistrate considers there is no sufficient ground for proceeding, he shall

• A. Frame the charge anyway
• B. Discharge the accused and record reasons
• C. Convict
• D. Adjourn indefinitely

Q37. [BNSS 2023] An application for plea bargaining under BNSS must be filed by the accused

• A. Before cognizance
• B. In a court in which the offence is pending for trial
• C. Only in the High Court
• D. After conviction

Q38. [BNSS 2023] Under the hierarchy of criminal courts in BNSS, the Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorised by law except

• A. A sentence of imprisonment up to three years
• B. A sentence of death, of imprisonment for life, or of imprisonment exceeding seven years
• C. Any fine
• D. Community service

Q39. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, statements made by a conspirator in reference to their common intention, after such intention was first entertained, are relevant against

• A. Only the maker
• B. None, being hearsay
• C. Only accused present in court
• D. Each of the persons believed to be parties to the conspiracy

Q40. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, a confession made while the accused is in police custody is not proved against them unless it is made

• A. To a fellow prisoner
• B. In the immediate presence of a Magistrate
• C. In writing
• D. After 24 hours

Q41. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, a statement by a person as to the cause of their death, or the circumstances of the transaction resulting in death, is relevant

• A. Only if the person expected death
• B. Whether or not the person was under expectation of death, when the cause of death is in question
• C. Only in murder trials
• D. Only if reduced to writing

Q42. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, oral evidence must in all cases be

• A. On affidavit
• B. Direct, i.e., of one who perceived the fact
• C. Corroborated
• D. Reduced to writing

Q43. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, the court shall presume the genuineness of every document purporting to be the Official Gazette or a document directed by law to be kept by any person, if kept

• A. By any private party
• B. In a bank locker
• C. For over ten years
• D. Substantially in the form required and in proper custody

Q44. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, when any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon

• A. That person
• B. The prosecution invariably
• C. The court
• D. The complainant

Q45. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, a tenant of immovable property, during the continuance of the tenancy, is estopped from denying that

• A. The landlord had a title to the property at the beginning of the tenancy
• B. The property exists
• C. Rent was paid
• D. The tenancy was created

Q46. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, a public officer cannot be compelled to disclose communications made to them in official confidence when the officer considers that

• A. The communication is old
• B. The party objects
• C. Public interests would suffer by the disclosure
• D. The case is civil

Q47. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, a witness may, while under examination, refresh their memory by referring to a writing made by them

• A. At any later date
• B. Only after cross-examination
• C. Only if certified
• D. At the time of the transaction or so soon afterwards that the court considers it likely the transaction was fresh in memory

Q48. [Constitution] Under the doctrine of eclipse, a pre-Constitution law inconsistent with a fundamental right is

• A. Not dead but overshadowed, and can revive if the inconsistency is later removed
• B. Void from inception
• C. Permanently unenforceable
• D. Automatically repealed

Q49. [Constitution] Reservation in promotion for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is enabled by

• A. Article 16(1)
• B. Article 16(4A)
• C. Article 15(4)
• D. Article 335

Q50. [Constitution] The ‘rarest of rare’ doctrine governing the imposition of the death sentence was propounded in

• A. Jagmohan Singh
• B. Machhi Singh alone
• C. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
• D. Mithu

Q51. [Constitution] Under Article 30, the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

• A. Is absolute and immune from all regulation
• B. Excludes all State aid
• C. Permits reasonable regulation in the interest of educational standards and excellence
• D. Bars minority status entirely

Q52. [Constitution] The relaxation of locus standi enabling public-spirited persons to approach the court on behalf of the disadvantaged underlies

• A. Res judicata
• B. Doctrine of merger
• C. Sovereign immunity
• D. Public Interest Litigation

Q53. [Constitution] Under Article 233, appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in any State are made by the

• A. State Public Service Commission
• B. Governor in consultation with the High Court
• C. Chief Justice of India
• D. State Legislature

Q54. [Constitution] That the power of judicial review of legislative action is a part of the basic structure and cannot be excluded even in respect of tribunals was held in

• A. S.P. Sampath Kumar alone
• B. Minerva Mills
• C. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
• D. Sankalchand

Q55. [Constitution] The doctrine that the amending power under Article 368 cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution was propounded in

• A. Golak Nath
• B. Sajjan Singh
• C. Shankari Prasad
• D. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

Q56. [Constitution] The doctrine of pith and substance is applied to determine

• A. The true nature and character of legislation to see the list under which it falls despite incidental encroachment
• B. The morality of a law
• C. The retrospective effect
• D. The date of commencement

Q57. [Constitution] Under Article 311(2), a civil servant cannot be dismissed, removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry giving a reasonable opportunity of being heard, but this may be dispensed with where

• A. The charge is minor
• B. It is not reasonably practicable, or in the interest of the security of the State, or on conviction on a criminal charge
• C. The servant is on leave
• D. The department is reorganised

Q58. [Contract] Under Section 25 Explanation 2 of the Indian Contract Act, an agreement is not void merely because the consideration is inadequate; inadequacy of consideration is relevant only to:

• A. Whether the agreement is illegal
• B. Whether the consent was freely given
• C. Whether the contract is uncertain
• D. Whether the object is lawful

Q59. [Contract] A minor who has obtained a loan by falsely representing himself as a major cannot generally be sued on the contract, but under equitable principles of restitution the court may order him to restore property still traceable in his hands where:

• A. He has spent all the money
• B. The property or its identifiable proceeds remain with him
• C. The lender knew he was a minor
• D. The minor later ratifies on majority

Q60. [Contract] The distinction between fraud and misrepresentation under Sections 17 and 18 turns principally on:

• A. The amount of loss caused
• B. Whether the false statement was made with intent to deceive or honestly believed true
• C. Whether the contract is written
• D. The domicile of the parties

Q61. [Contract] An agreement, the meaning of which is not certain and is not capable of being made certain, is under Section 29:

• A. Voidable
• B. Void
• C. Valid if reasonable
• D. Enforceable by custom

Q62. [Contract] Under Section 32, if a contingent contract is to be performed on a specified uncertain event happening and that event becomes impossible, the contract becomes:

• A. Voidable
• B. Void
• C. Enforceable at once
• D. Suspended

Q63. [Contract] A person to whom money has been paid, or a thing delivered, by mistake or under coercion, must under Section 72:

• A. Retain it as a gift
• B. Repay or return it
• C. Pay interest only
• D. Keep half

Q64. [Contract] Under Section 55, where time is of the essence and the promisor fails to perform at the agreed time, the contract becomes:

• A. Void automatically
• B. Voidable at the option of the promisee
• C. Discharged for both
• D. Frustrated

Q65. [Contract] Under Section 63, a promisee may dispense with or remit wholly or in part the performance of the promise, and such remission:

• A. Requires fresh consideration
• B. Requires no consideration to be valid
• C. Must be registered
• D. Is always revocable

Q66. [Contract] Under Section 124, a contract of indemnity is one by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by:

• A. Any act of God
• B. The conduct of the promisor himself or of any other person
• C. Only the promisee’s own default
• D. Natural wear and tear

Q67. [Contract] A continuing guarantee, which extends to a series of transactions under Section 129, may as to future transactions be revoked by the surety under Section 130 by:

• A. Notice to the principal debtor only
• B. Notice to the creditor
• C. Registered deed only
• D. Court order

Q68. [Property] Under Section 6(f), a public office, or the salary of a public officer whether before or after it has become payable, is:

• A. Transferable freely
• B. Not transferable
• C. Transferable after retirement
• D. Transferable with government sanction

Q69. [Property] Under Section 19, an interest is vested where, on a transfer, it is to take effect either immediately or on the happening of an event which:

• A. May or may not happen
• B. Must happen
• C. Is uncertain forever
• D. Depends on the transferee’s will

Q70. [Property] Under Section 18, the rules against perpetuity, accumulation and transfer for the benefit of the unborn do not apply where the transfer is for:

• A. A private individual
• B. The benefit of the public in the advancement of religion, knowledge, commerce, health, safety or other useful object
• C. A family settlement
• D. A commercial firm

Q71. [Property] Under Section 43, where a person fraudulently or erroneously represents that he is authorised to transfer certain immovable property and purports to transfer it for consideration, and later acquires an interest in it, the transfer may at the option of the transferee:

• A. Be rescinded
• B. Operate on the interest which the transferor subsequently acquires
• C. Be void
• D. Require re-registration only

Q72. [Property] For Section 53A part performance to protect a transferee in possession, the essential requisites include a written contract signed by the transferor from which the terms can be ascertained with reasonable certainty and that the transferee:

• A. Has registered the contract
• B. Has taken or continued in possession in part performance and is willing to perform his part
• C. Has paid nothing
• D. Holds only an oral agreement

Q73. [Property] The essential distinction between a usufructuary mortgage and a mortgage by conditional sale is that in the latter, under Section 58(c):

• A. Possession is always delivered
• B. The ostensible sale becomes absolute on default or void on payment, with the condition in the same document
• C. Rents are received by the mortgagee
• D. There is personal liability to pay

Q74. [Property] Under Section 82, where several properties are mortgaged to secure one debt and no contrary contract exists, the properties are, as between the owners, liable to contribute rateably to the debt in proportion to:

• A. Their number
• B. Their respective values at the date of the mortgage
• C. The order of purchase
• D. The mortgagee’s choice

Q75. [Property] Under Section 111, a lease of immovable property determines by efflux of the time limited, on the happening of a specified event, by merger, by express surrender, by implied surrender and by:

• A. Mere non-payment
• B. Forfeiture in specified cases
• C. Death of a witness
• D. Change of use

Q76. [Property] Under Section 126, a gift may be revoked where the donor and donee agree it shall be suspended or revoked on the happening of a specified event not dependent on the will of the donor; a gift revocable wholly at the mere will of the donor is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void as to that condition
• C. A trust
• D. A lease

Q77. [Torts] The State was held NOT liable for the negligence of police in handling seized gold because the act fell within sovereign functions in

• A. State of Rajasthan v Vidhyawati
• B. Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain v State of U.P.
• C. N. Nagendra Rao v State of A.P.
• D. Rudal Shah v State of Bihar

Q78. [Torts] Where injury results from the independent wrongful acts of two persons acting without concert, it is termed

• A. joint negligence
• B. composite negligence
• C. contributory negligence
• D. vicarious negligence

Q79. [Torts] On the question of remoteness of damage, the test of reasonable foreseeability was preferred over the directness test in

• A. Re Polemis
• B. Overseas Tankship (Wagon Mound No.1)
• C. Rylands v Fletcher
• D. Donoghue v Stevenson

Q80. [Torts] Under the Consumer Protection Act 2019, a person who buys goods for resale or a commercial purpose is

• A. a consumer in every case
• B. ordinarily excluded from the definition of consumer
• C. a service provider
• D. a complainant by default

Q81. [Commercial] To attract an offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, the cheque must be presented and returned unpaid, and demand must be made within

• A. fifteen days of dishonour
• B. thirty days of receiving the dishonour intimation
• C. ninety days
• D. six months

Q82. [Commercial] Where a judicial authority is seized of an action in a matter subject to a domestic arbitration agreement, reference to arbitration is governed by

• A. Section 8
• B. Section 9
• C. Section 11
• D. Section 45

Q83. [Commercial] Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016, a financial creditor initiates the corporate insolvency resolution process under

• A. Section 7
• B. Section 9
• C. Section 10
• D. Section 12

Q84. [Commercial] The pre-packaged insolvency resolution process under the Code was introduced specifically for

• A. all corporate persons
• B. micro, small and medium enterprises
• C. banks only
• D. individual debtors

Q85. [Commercial] A minor, under Section 30 of the Partnership Act, may be

• A. a full partner
• B. admitted only to the benefits of partnership
• C. personally liable for losses
• D. the managing partner

Q86. [Jharkhand Local Law] Restoration of tribal land under Section 71A of the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act is ordered by the:

• A. Civil Judge
• B. Deputy Commissioner / SAR authority
• C. High Court
• D. Gram Panchayat

Q87. [Jharkhand Local Law] Suits and proceedings under the CNT Act are tried by revenue courts headed ultimately by the:

• A. District Judge
• B. Deputy Commissioner (as a revenue court)
• C. Sessions Judge
• D. Munsif

Q88. [Jharkhand Local Law] In the Kolhan area of Jharkhand, administration and dispute resolution historically followed the codified:

• A. Bengal Tenancy Act
• B. Wilkinson’s Rules
• C. Santhal Pargana Tenancy Act
• D. Bihar Tenancy Act

Q89. [Jharkhand Local Law] Traditional village headmen who collect rent and maintain order in Santhal Pargana are the:

• A. Zamindars
• B. Pradhan/Manjhi (headmen)
• C. Collectors
• D. Munsifs

Q90. [Jharkhand Local Law] Consent of the Gram Sabha for acquisition of land and grant of mining leases in Jharkhand’s Scheduled Areas draws support from PESA and the principle in:

• A. Kesavananda Bharati
• B. Samatha v. State of A.P.
• C. Golaknath
• D. Minerva Mills

Q91. [Jharkhand Local Law] Recovery of public demands in Jharkhand as arrears follows the:

• A. CPC only
• B. Bihar and Orissa Public Demands Recovery Act, 1914
• C. CNT Act
• D. SPT Act

Q92. [Jharkhand Local Law] Under the SPT Act, 1949, transfer of raiyati land by a raiyat is, as a rule:

• A. Freely allowed
• B. Prohibited/void, save as the Act permits
• C. Allowed on registration
• D. Allowed by civil decree

Q93. [Jharkhand Local Law] ‘Mundari khuntkatti’ tenure under the CNT Act belongs to descendants of the original:

• A. Zamindar
• B. Village-founding Munda family
• C. British settler
• D. Municipal grantee

Q94. [Jharkhand Local Law] The constitutional advisory body on tribal welfare in the Fifth Schedule State of Jharkhand is the:

• A. State Finance Commission
• B. Tribes Advisory Council
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. State Election Commission

Q95. [Jharkhand Local Law] Rural self-government in Jharkhand’s Scheduled Areas, harmonised with PESA, is under the:

• A. CNT Act
• B. Jharkhand Panchayat Raj Act, 2001
• C. SPT Act
• D. Bihar Tenancy Act

Q96. [Jharkhand Local Law] ‘Bhuinhari’ land in the Chotanagpur region denotes tenure held on the basis of:

• A. Purchase
• B. Aboriginal first-settler/original cultivation rights
• C. Government grant
• D. Mortgage

Q97. [Jharkhand Local Law] A sale of raiyati land of a Scheduled-Tribe raiyat to a non-tribal in breach of the CNT Act is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void and liable to restoration
• C. Merely voidable
• D. Registrable

Q98. [Jharkhand Local Law] The Governor’s special powers over the Scheduled Areas of Jharkhand are exercised under paragraph 5 of the:

• A. Fourth Schedule
• B. Fifth Schedule
• C. Sixth Schedule
• D. Seventh Schedule

Q99. [Jharkhand Local Law] The SPT Act, 1949 operates within the territorial limits of the:

• A. Kolhan division
• B. Santhal Pargana division
• C. Palamu division
• D. Ranchi district

Q100. [Jharkhand Local Law] Administrative control over the subordinate judiciary of Jharkhand vests, under Article 235, in the:

• A. State Government
• B. Jharkhand High Court
• C. Deputy Commissioner
• D. Tribes Advisory Council