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Daily MCQ Paper — 30 April 2026

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Daily Practice Sheet — 50 Questions

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Daily MCQ Paper — 30 April 2026

50 questions across all sections. Use the practice interface to attempt; review answers and explanations after submission.

  1. Q1. Indra Sawhney v Union of India is famously associated with
    1. Mandal Commission / 27% OBC reservation
    2. Free legal aid
    3. Right to privacy
    4. Triple talaq
  2. Q2. Writ of habeas corpus literally means
    1. You may have the body
    2. Let it be done
    3. Let him answer
    4. Cause of action
  3. Q3. Vishaka v State of Rajasthan (1997) laid down guidelines on
    1. Custodial torture
    2. Sexual harassment at workplace
    3. Reservation
    4. Free speech
  4. Q4. Maneka Gandhi v Union of India (1978) expanded the scope of which Article?
    1. 14
    2. 19
    3. 21
    4. 32
  5. Q5. Justice K S Puttaswamy v Union of India (2017) declared right to privacy
    1. Not a fundamental right
    2. A statutory right
    3. A fundamental right under Art 21
    4. A directive principle
  6. Q6. Quo warranto can be issued against
    1. Private contracts
    2. Public office holders
    3. Spouses
    4. Minors
  7. Q7. Vineeta Sharma v Rakesh Sharma (2020) clarified
    1. Adoption rights
    2. Coparcenary rights of daughters in HUF
    3. Inter-caste marriage
    4. Triple talaq
  8. Q8. Article 32 was called by Dr. Ambedkar the
    1. "Heart and soul of the Constitution"
    2. "Conscience of the Constitution"
    3. "Cornerstone of Federalism"
    4. "Magna Carta"
  9. Q9. "State" under Article 12 includes
    1. Government and Parliament
    2. Government and Legislature of states
    3. All local/other authorities under control of GoI
    4. All of the above
  10. Q10. The Doctrine of Eclipse applies to
    1. Pre-Constitution laws inconsistent with FRs
    2. Post-Constitution laws only
    3. International treaties
    4. Customary law
  11. Q11. Punishment for theft under BNS is
    1. Up to 1 year
    2. Up to 3 years and/or fine
    3. Up to 5 years
    4. Up to 7 years
  12. Q12. Mischief is defined under BNS section
    1. 296
    2. 303
    3. 318
    4. 356
  13. Q13. Cheating is defined under BNS section
    1. 318
    2. 296
    3. 322
    4. 351
  14. Q14. Defamation under BNS is dealt with from
    1. Sections 351-356
    2. Sections 296-303
    3. Sections 318-322
    4. Sections 240-250
  15. Q15. Criminal trespass under BNS is in
    1. Section 329
    2. Section 318
    3. Section 351
    4. Section 296
  16. Q16. Mens rea means
    1. Guilty body
    2. Guilty mind
    3. Innocent intent
    4. Malice afore-fact
  17. Q17. Common intention (formerly IPC 34) appears in BNS as
    1. Section 3(5)
    2. Section 5
    3. Section 7
    4. Section 9
  18. Q18. Criminal intimidation is defined under BNS section
    1. 351
    2. 296
    3. 318
    4. 322
  19. Q19. Murder under BNS is dealt with in section
    1. 101
    2. 103
    3. 105
    4. 107
  20. Q20. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder under BNS is in section
    1. 100
    2. 101
    3. 105
    4. 103
  21. Q21. First Information Report is registered under BNSS section
    1. 173
    2. 154
    3. 158
    4. 165
  22. Q22. Investigation timeline for serious offences under BNSS is
    1. 30 days
    2. 60 days
    3. 90 days
    4. As per BNSS s.187 (60-90 days)
  23. Q23. A summons-case under BNSS is one where punishment is
    1. Up to 1 year
    2. Up to 2 years
    3. Up to 3 years
    4. Above 7 years
  24. Q24. Arrest by police without warrant is governed under BNSS section
    1. 35
    2. 38
    3. 41
    4. 46
  25. Q25. Powers to release on bail in non-bailable offence rest with
    1. Police only
    2. Court only (Magistrate / Sessions)
    3. Both
    4. Public prosecutor
  26. Q26. Default bail (statutory bail) accrues if charge-sheet is not filed within
    1. 30 days
    2. 60/90 days
    3. 120 days
    4. 180 days
  27. Q27. Anticipatory bail provision is under BNSS section
    1. 438
    2. 482
    3. 496
    4. 438 corresponds to BNSS s.482
  28. Q28. Burden of proof generally lies on the
    1. Defendant
    2. Plaintiff who would fail if no evidence
    3. Court
    4. State always
  29. Q29. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) replaced
    1. Indian Evidence Act 1872
    2. CrPC 1973
    3. IPC 1860
    4. Limitation Act
  30. Q30. Confessions made to a police officer are
    1. Always admissible
    2. Inadmissible against the accused
    3. Admissible if voluntary
    4. Admissible after 24 hours
  31. Q31. Best evidence rule prefers
    1. Secondary evidence
    2. Primary (original) evidence
    3. Hearsay
    4. Affidavits
  32. Q32. Doctrine of Res Gestae deals with
    1. Things simultaneously done — admissible
    2. Hearsay only
    3. Past habits
    4. Opinion of experts
  33. Q33. Lalman Shukla v Gauri Datt held
    1. Acceptance must be by assent
    2. Without knowledge of an offer there is no acceptance
    3. Performance is acceptance
    4. Offer once made cannot be withdrawn
  34. Q34. A contract without consideration is void unless
    1. Made in writing and registered between near relatives out of love
    2. Always
    3. Made on stamp paper
    4. None
  35. Q35. An agreement in restraint of trade is
    1. Generally void (s.27)
    2. Always valid
    3. Voidable
    4. Illegal
  36. Q36. Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose held
    1. Contracts by minors are void ab initio
    2. Voidable at minor's option
    3. Voidable at adult's option
    4. Valid
  37. Q37. Quasi-contracts are dealt with under sections
    1. 55-60
    2. 68-72
    3. 73-75
    4. 124-129
  38. Q38. M.C. Mehta v Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak) propounded the
    1. Strict liability rule
    2. Absolute liability rule
    3. Vicarious liability rule
    4. Volenti non fit injuria
  39. Q39. Vicarious liability of employer for employee's tort applies when act is in
    1. Course of employment
    2. Personal frolic
    3. Outside duty hours
    4. None
  40. Q40. Damnum sine injuria means
    1. Loss without legal injury — not actionable
    2. Legal injury without loss — actionable
    3. Both loss and injury
    4. Neither
  41. Q41. Injuria sine damno means
    1. Legal injury without actual loss — actionable
    2. Loss without injury
    3. Both
    4. Tortious immunity
  42. Q42. Conditions for valid Hindu marriage under HMA s.5 include
    1. Monogamy
    2. Soundness of mind
    3. Minimum ages
    4. All of the above
  43. Q43. The Hindu Marriage Act applies to
    1. Hindus only
    2. Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, Sikhs
    3. All Indians
    4. Hindus and Muslims
  44. Q44. Restitution of conjugal rights under HMA is in section
    1. 9
    2. 10
    3. 11
    4. 13
  45. Q45. Divorce by mutual consent under HMA is in
    1. S.13(1)
    2. S.13B
    3. S.10
    4. S.24
  46. Q46. Transfer of Property Act 1882 deals primarily with
    1. Movable property
    2. Immovable property inter vivos
    3. Wills only
    4. Intestate succession
  47. Q47. Lease of immovable property is governed under TPA section
    1. 105
    2. 107
    3. 108
    4. 110
  48. Q48. Mortgage is defined under TPA section
    1. 58
    2. 60
    3. 62
    4. 67
  49. Q49. "Sui generis" means
    1. Of its own kind
    2. By the same law
    3. Without prejudice
    4. In good faith
  50. Q50. "Habeas Corpus" is a term originating in
    1. English Common Law
    2. Roman Law
    3. Indian Law
    4. French Code