Haryana Superior Judicial Service (HSJS) — Prelims Pattern Mock 2 (100 Questions)

Q1. [Constitution] ‘Equality’ permits:

• A. No classification
• B. Reasonable classification with intelligible differentia & rational nexus
• C. Any classification
• D. Class legislation

Q2. [Constitution] ‘Rule of law’ (Dicey) includes:

• A. Arbitrary power
• B. Supremacy of law, equality before law, predominance of legal spirit
• C. Executive supremacy
• D. Judicial supremacy

Q3. [Constitution] The ‘due process’ content of Art.21 was imported in:

• A. Gopalan
• B. Maneka Gandhi
• C. ADM Jabalpur
• D. Kharak Singh

Q4. [Constitution] Right to a speedy trial is part of:

• A. Art.19
• B. Art.21
• C. Art.22
• D. Art.14

Q5. [Constitution] Right to legal aid is part of:

• A. Art.19
• B. Art.21 & Art.39A
• C. Art.25
• D. Art.300A

Q6. [Constitution] Right against handcuffing/torture flows from:

• A. Art.19
• B. Art.21
• C. Art.25
• D. Art.300A

Q7. [Constitution] The ‘basic structure’ includes judicial review as held in:

• A. Gopalan
• B. Minerva Mills
• C. ADM Jabalpur
• D. Golaknath

Q8. [Constitution] ‘Secularism’ as basic structure was affirmed in:

• A. S.R. Bommai
• B. Kesavananda
• C. Minerva Mills
• D. Golaknath

Q9. [Constitution] Free and fair elections as basic structure — case:

• A. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
• B. Golaknath
• C. Gopalan
• D. Kharak Singh

Q10. [Constitution] The power of judicial review is a part of the:

• A. Ordinary law
• B. Basic structure
• C. DPSP
• D. Preamble only

Q11. [Constitution] The Governor holds office during the:

• A. Fixed 5 years
• B. Pleasure of the President
• C. Pleasure of the CM
• D. Life

Q12. [Constitution] Money Bills can be introduced only in the:

• A. Rajya Sabha
• B. Lok Sabha
• C. Either House
• D. Joint sitting

Q13. [Constitution] The Rajya Sabha’s power over a Money Bill is limited to:

• A. Rejection
• B. Recommendations within 14 days
• C. Amendment
• D. Veto

Q14. [Constitution] A Constitutional Amendment Bill requires:

• A. Simple majority only
• B. Special majority (and ratification for federal provisions)
• C. Ordinance
• D. Money bill route

Q15. [Constitution] The ‘doctrine of prospective overruling’ was adopted in:

• A. Golaknath
• B. Kesavananda
• C. Maneka
• D. Bommai

Q16. [Constitution] Article 226 power is:

• A. Discretionary
• B. Mandatory
• C. Advisory
• D. Appellate

Q17. [Constitution] The ‘creamy layer’ concept applies to reservation for:

• A. SC
• B. ST
• C. OBC
• D. EWS

Q18. [Constitution] Reservation ceiling of 50% was laid down in:

• A. Indra Sawhney
• B. Champakam
• C. Balaji
• D. Both Balaji and Indra Sawhney

Q19. [Constitution] The right to vote in India is a:

• A. Fundamental right
• B. Constitutional/statutory right
• C. Natural right
• D. Directive

Q20. [Constitution] Freedom of the press is:

• A. Explicitly mentioned
• B. Implicit in Art.19(1)(a)
• C. In Art.21
• D. In Art.25

Q21. [Contract] An invitation to offer (e.g., goods on display) is:

• A. An offer
• B. Not an offer
• C. Acceptance
• D. A contract

Q22. [Contract] Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball established:

• A. No consideration
• B. A general offer can be accepted by conduct
• C. Minor’s contract
• D. Frustration

Q23. [Contract] Balfour v. Balfour held that domestic agreements:

• A. Are contracts
• B. Generally lack intention to create legal relations
• C. Are void
• D. Are voidable

Q24. [Contract] Silence as acceptance (Felthouse v. Bindley) is:

• A. Valid
• B. Not valid acceptance
• C. A counter-offer
• D. Frustration

Q25. [Contract] A counter-offer:

• A. Accepts the offer
• B. Rejects and terminates the original offer
• C. Is silence
• D. Is consideration

Q26. [Contract] Communication of acceptance by post is complete (against proposer) when:

• A. Received
• B. The letter is posted
• C. Read
• D. Delivered

Q27. [Contract] ‘Consideration may move from the promisee or any other person’ reflects:

• A. English rule
• B. Indian position (s.2(d))
• C. No consideration
• D. Privity

Q28. [Contract] Privity of contract means:

• A. Strangers can sue
• B. Only parties to a contract can sue on it
• C. Third parties always sue
• D. No suit

Q29. [Contract] Past consideration in Indian law is:

• A. Not consideration
• B. Valid consideration
• C. Void
• D. Illegal

Q30. [Contract] An agreement the meaning of which is uncertain is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void (s.29)
• C. Voidable
• D. Contingent

Q31. [Contract] A wagering agreement is void but collateral transactions are:

• A. Also void
• B. Not necessarily void
• C. Illegal
• D. Criminal

Q32. [Contract] ‘Consensus ad idem’ absent due to mutual mistake makes the agreement:

• A. Valid
• B. Void (s.20)
• C. Voidable
• D. Contingent

Q33. [Contract] An agreement to do an illegal act is:

• A. Voidable
• B. Void
• C. Valid
• D. Contingent

Q34. [Contract] A contract with a person of unsound mind (at time of contracting) is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void
• C. Voidable
• D. Contingent

Q35. [Contract] Anticipatory breach allows the aggrieved party to:

• A. Wait only
• B. Sue immediately or wait till performance date
• C. Do nothing
• D. Rescind only

Q36. [Contract] Liquidated damages vs penalty in Indian law — s.74 allows:

• A. Full penalty
• B. Reasonable compensation not exceeding the stipulated sum
• C. Nothing
• D. Double

Q37. [Contract] Remoteness of damages rule — Hadley v. Baxendale — covers losses:

• A. All losses
• B. Arising naturally + within contemplation
• C. Only direct
• D. Punitive

Q38. [Contract] ‘Quantum meruit’ claim arises when:

• A. Full performance
• B. Part performance & the contract is discharged/void
• C. No performance
• D. Breach by claimant

Q39. [Contract] A surety’s liability is:

• A. Primary
• B. Co-extensive with the principal debtor (unless otherwise)
• C. Nil
• D. Secondary only after decree

Q40. [Contract] Discharge of surety by variance in terms without consent — ICA:

• A. s.128
• B. s.133
• C. s.134
• D. s.135

Q41. [Contract] A continuing guarantee can be revoked as to future transactions by:

• A. Notice to the creditor
• B. The principal debtor
• C. The court
• D. No one

Q42. [Contract] In bailment, the bailee’s duty of care is that of a:

• A. Insurer
• B. Reasonably prudent man over his own goods
• C. Trustee
• D. Guarantor

Q43. [Contract] A finder of goods is a:

• A. Owner
• B. Bailee
• C. Trustee
• D. Thief

Q44. [Contract] A pledge is a bailment of goods as:

• A. Gift
• B. Security for a debt/promise
• C. Sale
• D. Lease

Q45. [Contract] An agent’s authority may be:

• A. Only express
• B. Express or implied
• C. Only written
• D. Only by deed

Q46. [Contract] Ratification of an unauthorised act by the principal — ICA:

• A. s.196
• B. s.201
• C. s.230
• D. s.238

Q47. [Contract] A sub-agent is generally:

• A. Directly liable to principal
• B. Under the agent, principal not represented (except fraud)
• C. An independent contractor
• D. A guarantor

Q48. [Contract] ‘Del credere’ agent is one who:

• A. Only sells
• B. Guarantees the solvency of the buyer
• C. Only buys
• D. Sub-delegates

Q49. [Contract] Termination of agency on death/insanity of principal — ICA:

• A. s.201
• B. s.208
• C. s.209
• D. s.210

Q50. [Contract] Standard form contracts raise the issue of:

• A. Consideration
• B. Unequal bargaining power / unconscionability
• C. Privity
• D. Frustration

Q51. [Contract] An exemption clause is construed:

• A. Liberally for drafter
• B. Strictly against the party relying on it (contra proferentem)
• C. Ignored
• D. In favour of the State

Q52. [Contract] A quasi-contract for money paid by mistake/coercion — ICA:

• A. s.68
• B. s.70
• C. s.72
• D. s.73

Q53. [Property] ‘Immovable property’ under the General Clauses Act excludes:

• A. Land
• B. Benefits arising out of land
• C. Standing timber, growing crops, grass
• D. Buildings

Q54. [Property] ‘Actionable claim’ is defined in the TPA in:

• A. s.3
• B. s.6
• C. s.130
• D. s.137

Q55. [Property] Transfer of an actionable claim is effected by:

• A. Delivery
• B. Written instrument (s.130)
• C. Registration only
• D. Endorsement

Q56. [Property] ‘Notice’ — a person is deemed to have notice of a registered document as:

• A. Actual
• B. Constructive notice
• C. No notice
• D. Imputed only

Q57. [Property] Doctrine of ‘part performance’ is a shield available to a:

• A. Transferor
• B. Transferee in possession
• C. Stranger
• D. Creditor

Q58. [Property] Conditions restraining alienation absolutely are:

• A. Valid
• B. Void
• C. Voidable
• D. Partial only

Q59. [Property] A transfer to take effect on failure of a prior interest — TPA:

• A. s.27
• B. s.28
• C. s.31
• D. s.35

Q60. [Property] Rule against perpetuity limits vesting to lives in being plus:

• A. 10 years
• B. Minority of the unborn
• C. 21 years fixed
• D. Perpetuity

Q61. [Property] ‘Onerous gift’ — TPA:

• A. s.122
• B. s.126
• C. s.127
• D. s.129

Q62. [Property] Revocation of gift is permitted — TPA:

• A. s.122
• B. s.126
• C. s.127
• D. s.128

Q63. [Property] A ‘usufructuary mortgage’ — TPA:

• A. s.58(a)
• B. s.58(b)
• C. s.58(d)
• D. s.58(e)

Q64. [Property] ‘English mortgage’ — TPA:

• A. s.58(b)
• B. s.58(c)
• C. s.58(e)
• D. s.58(f)

Q65. [Property] Mortgage by deposit of title deeds (equitable) — TPA:

• A. s.58(d)
• B. s.58(e)
• C. s.58(f)
• D. s.58(g)

Q66. [Property] ‘Clog on redemption’ is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void (right to redeem cannot be fettered)
• C. Voidable
• D. A charge

Q67. [Property] Subrogation (mortgage) — TPA:

• A. s.91
• B. s.92
• C. s.94
• D. s.95

Q68. [Property] A lease vs licence — a lease creates an interest in land; a licence:

• A. Also creates interest
• B. Confers only a permission (no interest)
• C. Is a sale
• D. Is a mortgage

Q69. [Property] Notice to quit for a monthly tenancy — TPA:

• A. 7 days
• B. 15 days
• C. 1 month
• D. 3 months

Q70. [Property] Determination of lease by forfeiture — TPA:

• A. s.108
• B. s.111(g)
• C. s.112
• D. s.114

Q71. [Property] Doctrine of ‘holding over’ (tenant continuing after expiry) — TPA:

• A. s.111
• B. s.114
• C. s.116
• D. s.117

Q72. [Property] ‘Easement’ is defined in the:

• A. TPA
• B. Indian Easements Act, 1882
• C. Registration Act
• D. CPC

Q73. [Property] A ‘right of way’ is an example of a:

• A. Profit
• B. Easement
• C. Lease
• D. Mortgage

Q74. [Property] Easement by prescription requires enjoyment as of right for:

• A. 12 years
• B. 20 years
• C. 30 years
• D. 60 years

Q75. [Property] Registration of a sale deed of immovable property (value Rs.100+) is:

• A. Optional
• B. Compulsory (Registration Act s.17)
• C. Only for gifts
• D. Only for leases

Q76. [Property] A will:

• A. Requires registration
• B. Does not require compulsory registration
• C. Requires stamp only
• D. Is a gift

Q77. [Commercial] A cheque is a bill of exchange drawn on a:

• A. Any person
• B. Specified banker, payable on demand
• C. Company
• D. Government

Q78. [Commercial] ‘Days of grace’ for a promissory note/bill payable after date are:

• A. 1 day
• B. 3 days
• C. 7 days
• D. None for cheques

Q79. [Commercial] Crossing of a cheque is dealt with in the NI Act around:

• A. ss.4-6
• B. ss.123-131
• C. ss.138-142
• D. s.13

Q80. [Commercial] ‘Not negotiable’ crossing means the transferee gets:

• A. Better title
• B. No better title than the transferor
• C. No title
• D. Full title

Q81. [Commercial] In s.138 NI, the drawer is liable when the cheque is dishonoured for:

• A. Any reason
• B. Insufficiency of funds / exceeds arrangement
• C. Only forgery
• D. Post-dating

Q82. [Commercial] The presumption under s.139 NI Act is:

• A. Irrebuttable
• B. Rebuttable
• C. Conclusive
• D. Not a presumption

Q83. [Commercial] Vicarious liability of a company’s directors for s.138 — NI Act:

• A. s.138
• B. s.141
• C. s.142
• D. s.147

Q84. [Commercial] An arbitral tribunal’s award must be:

• A. Oral
• B. In writing and signed, with reasons (unless agreed otherwise)
• C. Only oral
• D. Registered

Q85. [Commercial] The ‘seat’ of arbitration determines:

• A. Only venue
• B. The court having supervisory jurisdiction
• C. Nothing
• D. The language

Q86. [Haryana Local Law] Agricultural tenancy in Haryana is chiefly governed by the:

• A. Delhi Land Reforms Act
• B. Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887
• C. Rajasthan Tenancy Act
• D. MP Code

Q87. [Haryana Local Law] Land revenue administration in Haryana follows the:

• A. MP Land Revenue Code
• B. Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1887
• C. Rajasthan Land Revenue Act
• D. CG Code

Q88. [Haryana Local Law] The right of pre-emption in Haryana is under the:

• A. Punjab Pre-emption Act, 1913
• B. East Punjab Rent Act
• C. Punjab Courts Act
• D. TPA

Q89. [Haryana Local Law] ‘Shamilat deh’ (village common land) is regulated by the:

• A. Punjab Village Common Lands (Regulation) Act
• B. Rent Act
• C. Courts Act
• D. TPA

Q90. [Haryana Local Law] The Punjab Land Preservation Act (PLPA) deals with:

• A. Rent
• B. Prevention of soil erosion / land preservation
• C. Bail
• D. Mutation

Q91. [Haryana Local Law] Under the East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act, the authority deciding eviction is the:

• A. Civil Judge
• B. Rent Controller
• C. Sessions Judge
• D. Collector

Q92. [Haryana Local Law] An appeal from the Rent Controller lies to the:

• A. High Court
• B. Appellate Authority (District Judge)
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Sessions Court

Q93. [Haryana Local Law] The record of rights in Haryana is the:

• A. Jamabandi
• B. FIR
• C. Charge-sheet
• D. Plaint

Q94. [Haryana Local Law] ‘Girdawari’ in revenue administration is the:

• A. Rent deed
• B. Crop inspection record
• C. Criminal record
• D. Decree

Q95. [Haryana Local Law] Consolidation of agricultural holdings in Haryana is under the:

• A. East Punjab Holdings (Consolidation and Prevention of Fragmentation) Act, 1948
• B. Rent Act
• C. Courts Act
• D. TPA

Q96. [Haryana Local Law] Ceiling on land in Haryana is under the:

• A. Haryana Ceiling on Land Holdings Act, 1972
• B. Rent Act
• C. Pre-emption Act
• D. Courts Act

Q97. [Haryana Local Law] The Punjab Security of Land Tenures Act, 1953 protected:

• A. Landlords
• B. Tenants against arbitrary ejectment
• C. Traders
• D. Companies

Q98. [Haryana Local Law] Appeals/revisions in the subordinate civil courts of Haryana are structured by the:

• A. CPC only
• B. Punjab Courts Act, 1918
• C. Haryana Courts Act
• D. Constitution

Q99. [Haryana Local Law] The High Court common to Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh is at:

• A. Delhi
• B. Chandigarh
• C. Shimla
• D. Ambala

Q100. [Haryana Local Law] The HSJS mains has a distinctive weight on the:

• A. Hindi paper only
• B. Long English essay + précis
• C. Mathematics
• D. Science