Rajasthan (RHC) District Judge — Prelims Pattern Mock 2 (100 Questions)

Q1. [BNS 2023] ‘Grave and sudden provocation’ is:

• A. Exception 1 to murder
• B. An aggravation
• C. Abetment
• D. Conspiracy

Q2. [BNS 2023] Causing death by a rash/negligent act NOT amounting to culpable homicide — BNS:

• A. s.105
• B. s.106
• C. s.107
• D. s.100

Q3. [BNS 2023] Hit-and-run (fleeing without reporting) enhanced punishment is under BNS:

• A. s.104
• B. s.106(2)
• C. s.108
• D. s.110

Q4. [BNS 2023] ‘Unnatural offences’ (old s.377) after Navtej Johar — consensual adult acts are:

• A. Offences
• B. Not offences (read down)
• C. Bailable
• D. Compoundable

Q5. [BNS 2023] Acid attack (voluntarily causing grievous hurt by acid) — BNS:

• A. s.122
• B. s.124
• C. s.126
• D. s.118

Q6. [BNS 2023] ‘Attempt to commit suicide’ is largely decriminalised by:

• A. BNS
• B. MHCA 2017 s.115
• C. BNSS
• D. IT Act

Q7. [BNS 2023] Sexual harassment (unwelcome physical contact/demand) — BNS:

• A. s.73
• B. s.74
• C. s.75
• D. s.76

Q8. [BNS 2023] Voyeurism (watching/capturing a woman in a private act) — BNS:

• A. s.76
• B. s.77
• C. s.78
• D. s.79

Q9. [BNS 2023] Word/gesture/act intended to insult modesty — BNS:

• A. s.78
• B. s.79
• C. s.80
• D. s.75

Q10. [BNS 2023] Cheating and dishonestly inducing delivery of property — BNS:

• A. s.316
• B. s.318(4)
• C. s.319
• D. s.320

Q11. [BNS 2023] Dishonest misappropriation of property — BNS:

• A. s.314
• B. s.316
• C. s.318
• D. s.320

Q12. [BNS 2023] Criminal breach of trust by public servant/banker/agent (aggravated) — BNS:

• A. s.314
• B. s.316(5)
• C. s.318
• D. s.320

Q13. [BNS 2023] House-trespass — BNS:

• A. s.329
• B. s.330
• C. s.331
• D. s.332

Q14. [BNS 2023] Lurking house-trespass/house-breaking — BNS:

• A. s.330
• B. s.331
• C. s.332
• D. s.333

Q15. [BNS 2023] Forgery of a valuable security/will — BNS:

• A. s.336
• B. s.337
• C. s.338
• D. s.339

Q16. [BNS 2023] Using as genuine a forged document — BNS:

• A. s.336
• B. s.338
• C. s.340
• D. s.342

Q17. [BNS 2023] Counterfeiting currency-notes/bank-notes — BNS:

• A. s.178
• B. s.179
• C. s.180
• D. s.181

Q18. [BNS 2023] Making preparation to commit dacoity — BNS:

• A. s.310
• B. s.311
• C. s.312
• D. s.313

Q19. [BNS 2023] Being a member of a gang of dacoits — BNS:

• A. s.310
• B. s.311
• C. s.313
• D. s.314

Q20. [BNS 2023] Kidnapping for ransom — BNS:

• A. s.137
• B. s.139
• C. s.140
• D. s.141

Q21. [BNS 2023] Kidnapping/abducting to compel marriage — BNS:

• A. s.87
• B. s.88
• C. s.137
• D. s.140

Q22. [BNS 2023] Public nuisance — BNS:

• A. s.268
• B. s.270
• C. s.290
• D. s.292

Q23. [BNS 2023] Rash driving on a public way — BNS:

• A. s.279
• B. s.281
• C. s.283
• D. s.285

Q24. [BNS 2023] Negligent act likely to spread infection of disease dangerous to life — BNS:

• A. s.271
• B. s.272
• C. s.273
• D. s.274

Q25. [BNS 2023] Adulteration of food or drink for sale — BNS:

• A. s.274
• B. s.275
• C. s.276
• D. s.277

Q26. [BNS 2023] Sale of adulterated drugs — BNS:

• A. s.274
• B. s.276
• C. s.277
• D. s.278

Q27. [BNS 2023] Bigamy (marrying again during lifetime of spouse) — BNS:

• A. s.81
• B. s.82
• C. s.83
• D. s.84

Q28. [BNS 2023] Cohabitation caused by deceitfully inducing belief of lawful marriage — BNS:

• A. s.81
• B. s.83
• C. s.84
• D. s.85

Q29. [BNS 2023] Giving false evidence — BNS:

• A. s.227
• B. s.229
• C. s.231
• D. s.233

Q30. [BNS 2023] Fabricating false evidence — BNS:

• A. s.227
• B. s.228
• C. s.229
• D. s.230

Q31. [BNS 2023] Harbouring an offender — BNS:

• A. s.245
• B. s.246
• C. s.249
• D. s.250

Q32. [BNS 2023] Being a member of an unlawful assembly — BNS:

• A. s.187
• B. s.189
• C. s.190
• D. s.191

Q33. [BNS 2023] Rioting — BNS:

• A. s.189
• B. s.191
• C. s.192
• D. s.193

Q34. [BNS 2023] Affray — BNS:

• A. s.192
• B. s.193
• C. s.194
• D. s.195

Q35. [BNS 2023] Wrongful confinement for 3+ days — BNS (aggravated):

• A. s.127
• B. s.128
• C. s.129
• D. s.126

Q36. [BNSS 2023] ‘Bailable offence’ means one shown as bailable in:

• A. The FIR
• B. The First Schedule / made bailable by law
• C. The charge
• D. The judgment

Q37. [BNSS 2023] A person arrested without warrant cannot be detained beyond 24 hours without:

• A. Bail
• B. The Magistrate’s authorisation
• C. An FIR
• D. A charge

Q38. [BNSS 2023] ‘Cognizable offence’ means one in which a police officer may arrest:

• A. Only with warrant
• B. Without warrant
• C. Never
• D. Only with sanction

Q39. [BNSS 2023] A summons case is one relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment:

• A. Not exceeding 2 years
• B. Exceeding 2 years
• C. Life
• D. Death

Q40. [BNSS 2023] A charge may be altered by the court:

• A. Never
• B. At any time before judgment
• C. Only before evidence
• D. Only in appeal

Q41. [BNSS 2023] Joinder of charges — three offences of the same kind within a year — may be tried:

• A. Separately only
• B. Together
• C. Never
• D. In appeal

Q42. [BNSS 2023] ‘Discharge’ in a Sessions trial (no sufficient ground) — old s.227 — is decided:

• A. After evidence
• B. Before framing charge, on record & hearing
• C. After conviction
• D. In appeal

Q43. [BNSS 2023] Acquittal after prosecution evidence in a summons case, if no case, is:

• A. Not allowed
• B. Allowed (order of acquittal)
• C. Only in warrant cases
• D. Only in Sessions

Q44. [BNSS 2023] A ‘complaint’ does not include:

• A. Oral allegation
• B. A police report
• C. Written allegation
• D. Allegation to a Magistrate

Q45. [BNSS 2023] The Magistrate can order investigation before cognizance under old:

• A. s.156(3)
• B. s.190
• C. s.200
• D. s.202

Q46. [BNSS 2023] Postponement of process & inquiry by Magistrate — old:

• A. s.200
• B. s.202
• C. s.203
• D. s.204

Q47. [BNSS 2023] Dismissal of complaint — old:

• A. s.202
• B. s.203
• C. s.204
• D. s.205

Q48. [BNSS 2023] Issue of process (summons/warrant) — old:

• A. s.202
• B. s.203
• C. s.204
• D. s.205

Q49. [BNSS 2023] Tender of pardon to an accomplice (approver) — old:

• A. s.306
• B. s.307
• C. s.311
• D. s.313

Q50. [BNSS 2023] Power of the court to summon a material witness — old:

• A. s.311
• B. s.313
• C. s.319
• D. s.482

Q51. [BNSS 2023] Power to proceed against other persons appearing guilty — old:

• A. s.311
• B. s.313
• C. s.319
• D. s.482

Q52. [BNSS 2023] Compensation for groundless arrest/accusation — old:

• A. s.250
• B. s.357
• C. s.358
• D. s.359

Q53. [BNSS 2023] Maintenance order can be enforced by:

• A. Only civil suit
• B. Warrant/imprisonment for default
• C. No enforcement
• D. Only attachment

Q54. [BNSS 2023] A proclaimed offender who fails to appear may have property:

• A. Returned
• B. Attached and sold
• C. Gifted
• D. Leased

Q55. [BNSS 2023] Bail bond and surety requirements are governed by provisions on:

• A. Charge
• B. Bail (Chapter on bail)
• C. Judgment
• D. Appeal

Q56. [BNSS 2023] Anticipatory bail may be granted with conditions such as:

• A. None
• B. Availability for interrogation, not to tamper, not leave country
• C. Only cash
• D. Only surety

Q57. [BNSS 2023] ‘Zero FIR’ is transferred to the police station having jurisdiction after:

• A. Trial
• B. Registration (initial)
• C. Charge
• D. Conviction

Q58. [BNSS 2023] An ‘inquiry’ under the Code is conducted by a:

• A. Police officer
• B. Magistrate or Court (other than a trial)
• C. Public Prosecutor
• D. Registrar

Q59. [BNSS 2023] Sentencing hearing (hearing the accused on quantum) after conviction is:

• A. Not required
• B. Required in certain cases (pre-sentence hearing)
• C. Only in appeal
• D. Barred

Q60. [BNSS 2023] The right to free legal aid to an accused flows from:

• A. s.303 CrPC/BNSS + Art.39A
• B. No provision
• C. Only the Advocates Act
• D. Only rules

Q61. [Constitution] The Preamble was amended by the:

• A. 24th Amendment
• B. 42nd Amendment
• C. 44th Amendment
• D. 1st Amendment

Q62. [Constitution] ‘We, the people’ in the Preamble signifies:

• A. Parliamentary sovereignty
• B. Popular sovereignty
• C. Judicial supremacy
• D. Executive power

Q63. [Constitution] Fundamental Rights are enforceable against:

• A. Private persons only
• B. The State (Art.12), with some exceptions (Arts.15(2),17,23,24)
• C. Only Parliament
• D. No one

Q64. [Constitution] Reasonable restrictions on Art.19(1)(a) are in:

• A. Art.19(2)
• B. Art.19(3)
• C. Art.19(4)
• D. Art.19(6)

Q65. [Constitution] Freedom of trade/business restrictions are in:

• A. Art.19(2)
• B. Art.19(4)
• C. Art.19(6)
• D. Art.301

Q66. [Constitution] Right to freedom of religion is subject to:

• A. Nothing
• B. Public order, morality and health
• C. Only law
• D. Parliament

Q67. [Constitution] Doctrine of ‘colourable legislation’ means:

• A. Direct power
• B. What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly
• C. Delegated power
• D. Ultra vires only

Q68. [Constitution] ‘Doctrine of pith and substance’ is applied to:

• A. FR cases
• B. Legislative competence (List entries)
• C. Bail
• D. Amendments

Q69. [Constitution] The Seventh Schedule contains:

• A. FRs
• B. Union, State and Concurrent Lists
• C. Languages
• D. Oaths

Q70. [Constitution] Criminal law and criminal procedure are in the:

• A. Union List
• B. State List
• C. Concurrent List
• D. Residuary

Q71. [Constitution] Police and public order are in the:

• A. Union List
• B. State List
• C. Concurrent List
• D. Residuary

Q72. [Constitution] Defence and foreign affairs are in the:

• A. Union List
• B. State List
• C. Concurrent List
• D. Residuary

Q73. [Constitution] The Ninth Schedule (post-1973 laws) is subject to:

• A. No review
• B. Basic-structure review (I.R. Coelho)
• C. Only Parliament
• D. Ordinances

Q74. [Constitution] The Tenth Schedule deals with:

• A. Languages
• B. Anti-defection
• C. Oaths
• D. Salaries

Q75. [Constitution] The Eighth Schedule lists:

• A. Union subjects
• B. Recognised languages
• C. Anti-defection
• D. Panchayats

Q76. [Constitution] Panchayats (73rd Amendment) are in Part:

• A. VIII
• B. IX
• C. IXA
• D. X

Q77. [Constitution] Municipalities (74th Amendment) are in Part:

• A. IX
• B. IXA
• C. IXB
• D. X

Q78. [Constitution] Special leave petition is a matter of:

• A. Right
• B. Discretion of the Supreme Court
• C. Statute
• D. Rules

Q79. [Constitution] A writ of ‘certiorari’ is issued to:

• A. Command duty
• B. Quash an order made without jurisdiction/error of law
• C. Produce a body
• D. Question title

Q80. [Constitution] A writ of ‘prohibition’ is issued:

• A. After decision
• B. To prevent an inferior court exceeding jurisdiction (during proceedings)
• C. To produce a body
• D. To command duty

Q81. [Constitution] A writ of ‘quo warranto’ questions:

• A. Detention
• B. A person’s title/authority to hold a public office
• C. An order
• D. A duty

Q82. [Constitution] ‘Locus standi’ is relaxed in:

• A. Contract suits
• B. Public Interest Litigation
• C. Bail
• D. Appeals

Q83. [Constitution] Article 32 is itself a:

• A. DPSP
• B. Fundamental Right
• C. Ordinary right
• D. Duty

Q84. [Constitution] Preventive detention laws are subject to safeguards in:

• A. Art.20
• B. Art.21
• C. Art.22(4)-(7)
• D. Art.19

Q85. [Constitution] The maximum preventive detention without Advisory Board opinion is generally:

• A. 1 month
• B. 3 months
• C. 6 months
• D. 1 year

Q86. [Rajasthan Local Law] The Rajasthan Board of Revenue is located at:

• A. Jaipur
• B. Jodhpur
• C. Ajmer
• D. Udaipur

Q87. [Rajasthan Local Law] ‘Khatedari’ rights under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act are:

• A. Non-heritable
• B. Heritable and transferable
• C. For life only
• D. Government’s

Q88. [Rajasthan Local Law] A ‘Gair Khatedar’ tenant, on fulfilling conditions, may acquire:

• A. Nothing
• B. Khatedari rights
• C. Ownership of state
• D. A decree

Q89. [Rajasthan Local Law] Ceiling on agricultural holdings in Rajasthan is under the:

• A. Rajasthan Tenancy Act
• B. Rajasthan Imposition of Ceiling on Agricultural Holdings Act, 1973
• C. Rent Control Act
• D. TPA

Q90. [Rajasthan Local Law] Allotment of government/colonisation land in Rajasthan is under the:

• A. Rent Act
• B. Rajasthan Colonisation Act, 1954
• C. Tenancy Act only
• D. TPA

Q91. [Rajasthan Local Law] Conversion of agricultural land for other use in Rajasthan requires:

• A. No order
• B. Conversion order from the competent authority
• C. Only mutation
• D. A civil decree

Q92. [Rajasthan Local Law] The record of rights in Rajasthan revenue administration is the:

• A. FIR
• B. Jamabandi
• C. Charge-sheet
• D. Plaint

Q93. [Rajasthan Local Law] Ejectment of a tenant under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act is by the:

• A. Civil court
• B. Revenue court
• C. High Court
• D. Consumer forum

Q94. [Rajasthan Local Law] Appeal from an Assistant Collector’s order lies to the:

• A. High Court
• B. Collector/Revenue Appellate Authority
• C. Board directly
• D. Civil Judge

Q95. [Rajasthan Local Law] The Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 applies to:

• A. Agricultural land
• B. Premises in notified urban areas
• C. Forest land
• D. Government land

Q96. [Rajasthan Local Law] ‘Siwai chak’ / common land rights in Rajasthan are:

• A. Private
• B. Community/common rights
• C. State only
• D. Criminal

Q97. [Rajasthan Local Law] Recovery of arrears of land revenue in Rajasthan is by:

• A. Civil suit
• B. Coercive revenue process
• C. Criminal case
• D. Gift

Q98. [Rajasthan Local Law] Bar of civil court jurisdiction applies to matters exclusively assigned to:

• A. Consumer forum
• B. Revenue courts under the Tenancy/Land Revenue Acts
• C. High Court
• D. Sessions

Q99. [Rajasthan Local Law] The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act governs:

• A. Rent
• B. Rural local self-government
• C. Bail
• D. Mutation

Q100. [Rajasthan Local Law] The RJS mains includes a distinctive component of:

• A. Physics
• B. Language/translation + judgment writing
• C. Chemistry
• D. Accounts